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200-310 dumps
QUESTION 1
Why would an engineer implement variable length subnet masks?
A. To make a subnet public
B. To prevent wasting IP addresses
C. To make a subnet its own VLAN
D. To expand an existing subnet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
The red lines refer to STP blocked ports. What happens if the HSRP active moves to the right distribution, and the STP root remains on the left distribution?
A. The STP root becomes the gateway
B. The interdistribution link is used for transit
C. The HSRP standby becomes the gateway
D. The interaccess link is used for transit
E. Host traffic is unable to reach the HSRP active
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
In the traditional hierarchical LAN design,Which two statement about the distribution layer are true? (Choose two.)
A. It typically is connected directly to the internet It provides users direct access to the network
B. It uses Layer 2 switching only
C. It aggregates data from the access layer
D. Policy is implemented at this layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What three design requirements are key to design a Campus Core? 200-310 dumps
A. Low latency
B. Access control
C. Traffic filtering
D. High speed
E. Redundant links
F. QoS tagging
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 5
When designing the threat detection and mitigation portion for the enterprise data center network, which of the following would be the most appropriate solution to consider?
A. 802.1x
B. ACL in the Core layer
C. Cisco Security MARS
D. Cisco Firewall Services Module
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A network engineer has been asked to follow a top down design approach. Which layer of the OSI model is used to start the design?
A. Physical
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Application
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two design approaches provide management of Enterprise Network devices? (Choose two.)
A. In-band
B. Out-of-line
C. Out-of-band
D. In-line
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which two design decision can improve network resiliency? (you have to chose 2 answers)
A. Implement redundant link
B. Increase data plane bandwidth
C. Implement serial device connection
D. Reduce network size
E. Implement redundant topology
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified? 200-310 dumps
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What IPv4 addressing technique is used for proper address planning to reduce the number of entries in a routing table?
A. Filtering
B. Tunneling
C. Summarization
D. Translation
E. Supernetting
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
If two routing protocols have the same route and prefix, which effect do thery have on the routing table?
A. Only the route with the lowest administrative distance is added
B. Only the route with the highest administrative distance is added
C. Both routes are added
D. Neither route is added, and a loop is formed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which three are associated with the distribution layer within the campus design? (Choose three.)
A. Access layer aggregation
B. Route summarization
C. Network trust boundary
D. Next-hop redundancy
E. Layer-2 switching
F. Port security
G. Broadcast suppression
Correct Answer: ABD

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[Best Microsoft Real Dumps] Latest Microsoft 070-243 Dumps Exam Practice Files And Youtube Demo Free Shared

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration
Exam Name: Administering and Deploying System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Exam Code: 070-243
Total Questions: 112 Q&As
070-243 dumps
QUESTION 1
You recently migrated from System Center Configuration Manager 2007 to System Center 2012 Configuration Manager.
Your network contains a client computer that runs the 64-bit version of Windows 7 and the 32- bit version of Windows 7. Some client computers have the Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) client installed.
You have an Application named App1. You have a 64-bit version of App1, a 32-bit version of App1, and a virtual version of App1.
You need to deploy the Application to all of the client computers. The solution must minimize the amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Create a new Application that has three different deployment types and create a target collection for each of the deployment types.
B. Create a new Application that has three different deployment types and configure global conditions for each of the deployment types.
C. Create a new package for each version of App1.
D. Create a new Application for each version of App1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You have an Application named App1.
You need to ensure that users in the finance department can install App1 by using the Application Catalog.
What should you do?
A. Create a required user deployment and target the deployment to all of the finance department users.
B. Create a required user deployment and target the deployment to all of the client computers in the finance department.
C. Create an available user deployment and target the deployment to all of the finance department users.
D. Create an available user deployment and target the deployment to all of the client computers in the finance department.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Your company uses System Center 2012 Configuration Manager with Microsoft Forefront Endpoint Protection integration.
You deploy Forefront Endpoint Protection to all client computers.
The company uses a management Application named App1.
You discover that Forefront Endpoint Protection blocks App1.
You need to ensure that App1 can run.
How should you configure the Default Client Malware Policy? 070-243 dumps (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Create a software restriction policy.
B. Add a process exclusion.
C. Add a file location exclusion.
D. Modify the schedule scan settings.
E. Click the Use behavior monitoring check box.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You deploy a Microsoft Office 2007 package to all client computers by using Configuration Manager.
Your company purchases Office 2010.
You need to ensure that all users can install Office 2010 from the Application Catalog.
What should you do?
A. Deploy a new package for Office 2010.
B. Deploy Office 2010 by using a Group Policy Object (GPO).
C. Update the Office 2007 source file and redeploy the package.
D. Deploy a new Application for Office 2010.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You deploy Windows 7 by using Operating System Deployment (OSD). The development task sequence contains steps to install software updates and Applications.
The amount of time required to deploy the Windows 7 image has increased significantly during the last six months.
You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to deploy the image.
What should you recommend?
A. Synchronize software updates before deploying the image.
B. Use offline servicing for the image.
C. Create a new automatic deployment rule.
D. Add an additional Install Software Updates step to the deployment task sequence.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You have Windows 7 images that are rebuilt quarterly and sported to System Center 2012 Configuration Manager.
The Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) 2012 is integrated with Configuration Manager.
You need to reduce the network security risks when the images are deployed by using Operating System Deployment (OSD).
What should you do? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. After the Apply Operating System Image task sequence step, add a step to install software updates offline.
B. Before the Apply Operating System image task sequence step, add a step to install Deployment Imaging Servicing and Management (DISM).
C. After the installation of the final Application, add an Install Software Updates task sequence step.
D. After the Apply Operating System Image task sequence step, add a Run Command line step that runs wuaudt.exe /detectnow
E. Before the Apply Operating System image task sequence step, add a step to install the Windows Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK).
Correct Answer: AC
070-243 dumps
QUESTION 7
Your company uses System Center 2012 Configuration Manager to distribute operating system images.
The standard operating system for client computers is Windows 7 Enterprise (x86).
You receive 300 new desktop computers. Each computer has a new storage controller.
When you attempt to deploy an existing image to one of the computers, you receive an error message indicating that a storage device cannot be found during the pre-boot deployment phase. You need to ensure that you can deploy Windows 7 to the new computers by using an image.
What should you do?
A. Import the storage drivers to the Drivers container and update the task sequence.
B. Create a new x64 boot image and configure the operating system image to use the x64 boot image.
C. Create a new driver package and update the task sequence.
D. Update the existing x86 boot image to include the storage drivers.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You plan to create a build and capture a task sequence to build a reference image of Windows 7.
You need to identify which applications must exist in Configuration Manager before you can create the build and capture task sequence. 070-243 dumps
Which applications should you identify? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT)
B. Configuration Manager client
C. System Preparation tool (Sysprep)
D. User State Migration Tool (USMT)
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The Client Status node in the Configuration Manager console shows a downward trend in client health.
You verify the logs on several clients.
You discover that the clients are healthy and are communicating normally to management points.
You need to identify the reasons why the Configuration Manager console displays a downward trend in client health.
Which reasons should you identify? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. In Client Status Settings Properties, the Heartbeat discovery during the following days interval is shorter than the Heartbeat Discovery interval.
B. The age set in the Delete Aged Discovery Data maintenance task is shorter than the Heartbeat Discovery interval.
C. The Delete Obsolete Client Discovery Data maintenance task is disabled.
D. The Active Directory sites that are members of boundary groups are modified.
E. Microsoft SQL Server replication to the management points stopped.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The hierarchy contains a Central Administration at Site1 and a primary site named Site.
You discover that none of the packages created on Site1 are displayed in Site2.
You need to identify whether there is a replication issue between the sites.
What should you review?
A. the Inventoryagent.log file
B. the Rcmctrl.log file
C. the Microsoft SQL Server replication diagnostic files
D. the Despool.log file
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and litwareinc.com.
You implement System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in the contoso.com forest.
You deploy the Configuration Manager client to all of the client computers in contoso.com by using a logon script.
You need to ensure that the Configuration Manager client is automatically deployed to all of the client computers in the litwareinc.com forest.
What should you do? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Configure a Client Push Installation account.
B. Enable Client Push installation.
C. Enable Active Directory System Discovery.
D. Configure an administrative user.
E. Enable Active Directory Forest Discovery.
Correct Answer: ABCE

QUESTION 12
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The environment contains a single primary site.
You need to provide users with the ability to remotely reset their mobile device to the factory settings.
What should you install?
A. Application Catalog web service point and Application Catalog website point
B. Out of band service point and Application Catalog web service point
C. Device management point and System Health Validator point
D. System Health Validator point and Application Catalog website point
Correct Answer: A

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[Best Cisco Real Dumps] The Best And Most Cisco 300-115 Dumps Exam Materials And Youtube Demo Free Shared

The best and most Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo free update. Get the latest Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps exam practice questions and answers free download from lead4pass. “Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks” is the name of Cisco CCDP https://www.lead4pass.com/300-115.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Prepare for Cisco 300-115 exam with high quality Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps pdf training resources, pass Cisco 300-115 exam test easily at first try.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Exam Code: 300-115
Total Questions: 456 Q&As
300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch is overloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. The destination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?
A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
300-115 dumps When a Layer 2 EtherChannel is configured, which statement about placement of the IP address is true?
A. The IP address is placed on the highest numbered member port.
B. The IP address is placed on the port-channel logical interface.
C. The IP address is placed on the lowest numbered member port.
D. The IP address is assigned via DHCP only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A network engineer is installing a switch for temporary workers to connect to. The engineer does not want this switch participating in Spanning Tree with the rest of the network; however, end user connectivity is still required. Which spanning-tree feature accomplishes this?
A. BPDUblock
B. BPDUfilter
C. BPDUignore
D. BPDUguard
E. BPDUdisable
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, local username, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
When you configure private VLANs on a switch, which port type connects the switch to the gateway router?
A. promiscuous
B. community
C. isolated
D. trunked
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
300-115 dumps Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast enabled and it receives BPDUs?
A. BPDU filtering
B. BackboneFast
C. EtherChannel
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which VRRP router is responsible for forwarding packets that are sent to the IP addresses of the virtual router?
A. virtual router master
B. virtual router backup
C. virtual router active
D. virtual router standby
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which option is a benefit of using VSS?
A. reduces cost
B. simplifies configuration
C. provides two independent supervisors with two different control planes
D. removes the need for a First Hop Redundancy Protocol
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to-MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two options are two results of using the command spanning-tree vlan 50 root primary within a spanning-tree network under global configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Spanning tree determines the priority of the current root for VLAN 50 and reduces the priority of the local switch to a lower value.
B. The priority value for VLAN 50 is set to 4094 on the root while the local switch priority is set to 32768.
C. The spanning-tree timers are reduced to improve the convergence time for VLAN 50.
D. All ports that are configured on the current switch with VLAN 50 transition to designated ports.
E. The switchport that is configured for VLAN 50 is the primary connection to the spanning-tree root switch.
Correct Answer: AD

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[Best Cisco Real Dumps] High Quality Lead4pass 100-105 Dumps Cisco Exam Practice Files And Youtube Update

High quality lead4pass 100-105 dumps Cisco ICND1 exam practice files and vce youtube demo. Get the best Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps pdf training resources and study guides free update from lead4pass. “Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)” is the name of Cisco ICND1 https://www.lead4pass.com/100-105.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Latest lead4pass 100-105 dumps Cisco ICND1 exam questions and answers free try, 100% success and guarantee to pass Cisco 100-105 exam test easily.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
lead4pass 100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?
A. shutdown
B. protect
C. shutdown vlan
D. restrict
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass 100-105 dumps
A user cannot reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department are not having a problem.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?A. IP routing is not enabled.
B. The default gateway is not in the same subnet.
C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.
D. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC.
E. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass 100-105 dumps
A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?
A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the routing table?
A. S
B. E
C. D
D. R
E. O
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
A. IEEE 802 1w
B. IEEE 802 1D
C. IEEE 802 1Q
D. IEEE 802 1p
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different subnets?
A. 172.20.1.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 192.168.0.119
D. 239.255.0.1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

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[Best Cisco Real Dumps] Latest Cisco 200-105 Dumps PDF Materials And VCE Youtube Update Free Try

Prepare for Cisco 200-105 exam with high quality Cisco ICND2 200-105 dumps training materials and study guides free try. Get the best Cisco ICND2 200-105 dumps pdf training resources and vce youtube update free demo. “Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)” is the name of Cisco ICND2 https://www.lead4pass.com/200-105.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Latest Cisco ICND2 200-105 dumps exam practice questions and answers free download from lead4pass, pass Cisco 200-105 exam test easily.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor? 200-105 dumps
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
200-105 dumps
200-105 dumps
What would be the destination Layer 2 address in the frame header for a frame that is being forwarded by Dubai to the host address of 172.30.4.4?
A. 825
B. 230
C. 694
D. 387
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three.)
A. Network, Application & User Monitoring
B. Network Planning
C. Security Analysis
D. Accounting/Billing
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 7
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? (Select three.)
A. Send an SNMP trap.
B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
200-105 dumps Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?
A. FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69
B. FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69
C. FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69
D. FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. Which of the following are required to solve this? (Choose three)
A. configure static frame relay map entries for each subinterface network.
B. remove the ip address from the physical interface
C. create the virtual interfaces with the interface command
D. configure each subinterface with its own IP address
E. disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks
F. encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP
Correct Answer: BCD

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Vendor: RedHat
Certifications: RHCSA
Exam Name: Red Hat Certified System Administrator – RHCSA
Exam Code: EX200
Total Questions: 24 Q&As
EX200 dumps
QUESTION 1
Download ftp://192.168.0.254/pub/boot.iso to /root, and mounted automatically under /media/cdrom and which take effect automatically at boot-start.
Correct Answer:
# cd /root; wget ftp://192.168.0.254/pub/boot.iso
# mkdir -p /media/cdrom
# vim /etc/fstab
/root/boot.iso /media/cdrom iso9660 defaults,loop 0 0
# mount -a
mount [-t vfstype] [-o options] device dir

QUESTION 2
Configure the verification mode of your host account and the password as LDAP. And it can ldapuser40. The password is set as “password”. And the certificate login successfully through can be downloaded from http://ip/dir/ldap.crt. After the user logs on , the user has no host directory unless you configure the autofs in the following questions.
Correct Answer:
system-config-authentication
LDAP Server: ldap//instructor.example.com (In domain form, not write IP)
OR
# yum groupinstall directory-client (1.krb5-workstation 2.pam-krb5 3.sssd)
# system-config-authentication
1.User Account Database: LDAP
2.LDAP Search Base DN: dc=example,dc=com
3.LDAP Server: ldap://instructor.example.com (In domain form, not write IP)
4.Download CA Certificate
5.Authentication Method: LDAP password
6.Apply
getent passwd ldapuser40

QUESTION 3
Create a volume group, and set 8M as a extends. Divided a volume group containing 50 extends on volume group lv (lvshare), make it as ext4 file system, EX200 dumps and mounted automatically under /mnt/data. And the size of the floating range should set between 380M and 400M.
Correct Answer:
# fdisk
# partprobe
# pvcreate /dev/vda6
# vgcreate -s 8M vg1 /dev/vda6 -s
# lvcreate -n lvshare -l 50 vg1 -l
# mkfs.ext4 /dev/vg1/lvshare
# mkdir -p /mnt/data
# vim /etc/fstab
/dev/vg1/lvshare /mnt/data ext4 defaults 0 0
# mount -a
# df -h

QUESTION 4
Create a 2G swap partition which take effect automatically at boot-start, and it should not affect the original swap partition.
Correct Answer:
# fdisk /dev/sda
(check Partition table)
(create new partition: press e to create extended partition, press p to create the main
partition, and theextended partition is further divided into logical partitions) Enter
# partx -a /dev/sda
# partprobe
# mkswap /dev/sda8
# Copy UUID
# swapon -a
# vim /etc/fstab
UUID=XXXX swap swap defaults 0 0
(swapon -s)

QUESTION 5
Find the files owned by harry, and copy it to catalog: /opt/dir
Correct Answer:
# cd /opt/
# mkdir dir
# find / -user harry -exec cp -rfp {} /opt/dir/ \;

QUESTION 6
Configure a task: plan to run echo hello command at 14:23 every day.
Correct Answer:
# which echo
# crontab –e
23 14 * * * /bin/echo hello
# crontab -l (Verify)

QUESTION 7
Create a 512M partition, make it as ext4 file system, mounted automatically under /mnt/data and which take effect automatically at boot-start.
Correct Answer:
# fdisk /dev/vda
# partprobe /dev/vda
# mkfs -t ext4 /dev/vda5
# mkdir -p /data
# vim /etc/fstab
/dev/vda5 /data ext4 defaults 0 0
# mount -a

QUESTION 8
Upgrading the kernel as 2.6.36.7.1, and configure the system to Start the default kernel, keep the old kernel available.
Correct Answer:
# cat /etc/grub.conf
# cd /boot
# lftp it
# get dr/dom/kernel-xxxx.rpm
# rpm -ivh kernel-xxxx.rpm
# vim
/etc/grub.conf
default=0

QUESTION 9
Configure autofs to make sure after login successfully, it has the home directory autofs, which is shared as /rhome/ldapuser40 at the ip: 172.24.40.10. and it also requires that, EX200 dumps other ldap users can use the home directory normally.
Correct Answer:
# chkconfig autofs on
# cd /etc/
# vim /etc/auto.master
/rhome /etc/auto.ldap
# cp auto.misc auto.ldap
# vim auto.ladp
ldapuser40 -rw,soft,intr 172.24.40.10:/rhome/ldapuser40
* -rw,soft,intr 172.16.40.10:/rhome/&
# service autofs stop
# server autofs start
# showmount -e 172.24.40.10
# su – ladpuser40

QUESTION 10
Configure the system synchronous as 172.24.40.10.
Correct Answer:
Graphical Interfaces:
System–>Administration–>Date & Time
OR
# system-config-date

QUESTION 11
Create a volume group, and set 16M as a extends. And divided a volume group containing 50 extends on volume group lv, make it as ext4 file system, and mounted automatically under /mnt/data.
Correct Answer:
# pvcreate /dev/sda7 /dev/sda8
# vgcreate -s 16M vg1 /dev/sda7 /dev/sda8
# lvcreate -l 50 -n lvm02
# mkfs.ext4 /dev/vg1/lvm02
# blkid /dev/vg1/lv1
# vim /etc/fstab
# mkdir -p /mnt/data
UUID=xxxxxxxx /mnt/data ext4 defaults 0 0
# vim /etc/fstab
# mount -a
# mount
(Verify)

QUESTION 12
Change the logical volume capacity named vo from 190M to 300M. and the size of the floating range should set between 280 and 320. (This logical volume has been mounted in advance.)
Correct Answer:
# vgdisplay
(Check the capacity of vg, if the capacity is not enough, need to create pv , vgextend , lvextend)
# lvdisplay (Check lv)
# lvextend -L +110M /dev/vg2/lv2
# resize2fs /dev/vg2/lv2
# mount -a
(Verify)
——————————————————————————- (Decrease lvm)
# umount /media
# fsck -f /dev/vg2/lv2
# resize2fs -f /dev/vg2/lv2 100M
# lvreduce -L 100M /dev/vg2/lv2
# mount -a
# lvdisplay (Verify)
OR
# e2fsck -f /dev/vg1/lvm02
# resize2fs -f /dev/vg1/lvm02
# mount /dev/vg1/lvm01 /mnt
# lvreduce -L 1G -n /dev/vg1/lvm02
# lvdisplay (Verify)

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Vendor: Juniper
Certifications: JNCIA
Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Internet Associate, Junos(JNCIA-Junos)
Exam Code: JN0-102
Total Questions: 395 Q&As
101-400 dumps
QUESTION 1
What is the purpose of the Filesystem Hierarchy Standard?
A. It is a security model used to ensure files are organized according to their permissions and accessibility.
B. It provides unified tools to create, maintain and manage multiple filesystems in a common way.
C. It defines a common internal structure of inodes for all compliant filesystems.
D. It is a distribution neutral description of locations of files and directories.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
After moving data to a new filesystem, how can the former path of the data be kept intact in order to avoid reconfiguration of existing applications? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. By creating an ACL redirection from the old to the new path of the data.
B. By creating a hard link from the old to the new path of the data.
C. By creating a symbolic link from the old to the new path of the data.
D. By running the command touch on the old path.
E. By mounting the new filesystem on the original path of the data.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
Which of the following commands kills the process with the PID 123 but allows the process to “clean up” before exiting?
A. kill -PIPE 123
B. kill -KILL 123
C. kill -STOP 123
D. kill -TERM 123
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following commands changes the number of days before the ext3 filesystem on /dev/sda1 has to run through a full filesystem check while booting? 101-400 dumps
A. tune2fs -d 200 /dev/sda1
B. tune2fs -c 200 /dev/sda1
C. tune2fs -i 200 /dev/sda1
D. tune2fs -n 200 /dev/sda1
E. tune2fs –days 200 /dev/sda1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following commands will print the last 10 lines of a text file to the standard output?
A. cat -n 10 filename
B. dump -n 10 filename
C. head -n 10 filename
D. tail -n 10 filename
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
What can the Logical Volume Manager (LVM) be used for? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. To create RAID 9 arrays.
B. To dynamically change the size of logical volumes.
C. To encrypt logical volumes.
D. To create snapshots.
E. To dynamically create or delete logical volumes.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 7
What is the effect of the egrep command when the -v option is used?
A. It enables color to highlight matching parts.
B. It only outputs non-matching lines.
C. It shows the command’s version information.
D. It changes the output order showing the last matching line first.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following settings for umask ensures that new files have the default permissions -rw-r—– ?
A. 0017
B. 0640
C. 0038
D. 0027
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following commands prints all files and directories within the /tmp directory or its subdirectories which are also owned by the user root? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. find /tmp -uid root -print
B. find -path /tmp -uid root
C. find /tmp -user root -print
D. find /tmp -user root
E. find -path /tmp -user root print
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
Which of the following commands can be used to display the inode number of a given file?
A. inode
B. ls
C. ln
D. cp
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following commands creates an ext3 filesystem on /dev/sdb1? 101-400 dumps (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. /sbin/mke2fs -j /dev/sdb1
B. /sbin/mkfs -t ext3 /dev/sdb1
C. /sbin/mkfs -c ext3 /dev/sdb1
D. /sbin/mke3fs -j /dev/sdb1
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
Which file in the /proc filesystem lists parameters passed from the bootloader to the kernel? (Specify the file name only without any path.)
Correct Answer: cmdline

QUESTION 13
Which option to the yum command will update the entire system? (Specify ONLY the option name without any additional parameters.)
Correct Answer: update

QUESTION 14
Which command displays a list of all background tasks running in the current shell? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)
Correct Answer: jobs

QUESTION 15
Which umask value will result in the default access permissions of 600 (rw——-) for files and 700 (rwx——) for directories? (Specify only the numerical umask value.)
Correct Answer: 0077

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Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Oracle Database
Exam Name: Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c
Exam Code: 1Z0-060
Total Questions: 150 Q&As
1Z0-060 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your multitenant container database, CDB1, is running in ARCHIVELOG mode and has two pluggable databases, HR_PDB and ACCOUNTS_PDB. An RMAN backup exists for the database.
You issue the command to open ACCOUNTS_PDB and find that the USERDATA.DBF data file for the default permanent tablespace USERDATA belonging to ACCOUNTS_PDB is corrupted.
What should you do before executing the commands to restore and recover the data file in ACCOUNTS_PDB?
A. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and then the USERDATA tablespace offline in ACCOUNTS_PDB.
B. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb CLOSE IMMEDIATE command.
C. Issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb RESTRICTED command.
D. Take the USERDATA tablespace offline in ACCOUNTS_PDB.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?
A. It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user connections.
B. A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.
C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the process monitor (PMON) process of each database instance.
D. The listener.ora configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol addresses to allow remote users to connect to a database instance.
E. The listener.ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directly.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true about the use of the procedures listed in the v$sysaux_occupants.move_procedure column?1Z0-060 dumps
A. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data to the SYSAUX tablespace from its current tablespace.
B. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data from the SYSAUX tablespace to another tablespace.
C. All the components may be moved into SYSAUX tablespace.
D. All the components may be moved from the SYSAUX tablespace.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
In order to exploit some new storage tiers that have been provisioned by a storage administrator, the partitions of a large heap table must be moved to other tablespaces in your Oracle 12c database?
Both local and global partitioned B-tree Indexes are defined on the table.
A high volume of transactions access the table during the day and a medium volume of transactions access it at night and during weekends.
Minimal disrupt ion to availability is required.
Which three statements are true about this requirement?
A. The partitions can be moved online to new tablespaces.
B. Global indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
C. The partitions can be compressed in the same tablespaces.
D. The partitions can be compressed in the new tablespaces.
E. Local indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 5
Which three are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle Database 12c when it is enabled?
A. Reduced logical I/O
B. Reduced virtual memory utilization
C. Improved parallel Execution performance
D. Improved Serial Execution performance
E. Reduced physical I/O
F. Reduced CPU utilization
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 6
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases (PDB), users complain about performance degradation.
How does real-time Automatic database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) check performance degradation and provide solutions?
A. It collects data from SGA and compares it with a preserved snapshot.
B. It collects data from SGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.
C. It collects data from SGA and compares it with the latest snapshot.
D. It collects data from both SGA and PGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is enabled? 1Z0-060 dumps
A. Oracle Data Pump
B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)
C. Oracle Label Security
D. Oracle Database Vault
E. Oracle Real Application Security
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Examine the following commands for redefining a table with Virtual Private Database (VPD) policies:
1Z0-060 dumps
Which two statements are true about redefining the table?
A. All the triggers for the table are disabled without changing any of the column names or column types in the table.
B. The primary key constraint on the EMPLOYEES table is disabled during redefinition.
C. VPD policies are copied from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
D. You must copy the VPD policies manually from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which three are true about the large pool for an Oracle database instance that supports shared server connections?
A. Allocates memory for RMAN backup and restore operations
B. Allocates memory for shared and private SQL areas
C. Contains a cursor area for storing runtime information about cursors
D. Contains stack space
E. Contains a hash area performing hash joins of tables
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
You notice that the performance of your production 24/7 Oracle database significantly degraded. Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want to restart the database instance.
How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?
A. Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.
B. Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA analysis.
C. Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
D. Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring.
E. Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage Management (ASM). You use RMAN to back up the database and the MD_BACKUP command to back up the ASM metadata regularly. You lost an ASM disk group DG1 due to hardware failure. 1Z0-060 dumps
In which three ways can you re-create the lost disk group and restore the data?
A. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore metadata for an existing disk group by passing the existing disk group name as an input parameter and use RMAN to restore the data.
B. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up disk group and data on the disk group.
C. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore the disk group with the changed disk group specification, failure group specification, name, and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.
D. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up disk group name and same set of disks and failure group configuration, and use RMAN to restore the data.
E. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore both the metadata and data for the failed disk group.
F. Use the MKDG command to add a new disk group DG1 with the same or different specifications for failure group and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 12
Your multitenant container (CDB) contains two pluggable databases (PDB), HR_PDB and ACCOUNTS_PDB, both of which use the CDB tablespace. The temp file is called temp01.tmp.
A user issues a query on a table on one of the PDBs and receives the following error:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01565: error in identifying file `/u01/app/oracle/oradata/CDB1/temp01.tmp’ ORA-27037: unable to obtain file status Identify two ways to rectify the error.
A. Add a new temp file to the temporary tablespace and drop the temp file that that produced the error.
B. Shut down the database instance, restore the temp01.tmp file from the backup, and then restart the database.
C. Take the temporary tablespace offline, recover the missing temp file by applying redo logs, and then bring the temporary tablespace online.
D. Shutdown the database instance, restore and recover the temp file from the backup, and then open the database with RESETLOGS.
E. Shut down the database instance and then restart the CDB and PDBs.
Correct Answer: AE

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSA
Exam Name: Networking with Windows Server 2016
Exam Code: 70-741
Total Questions: 48 Q&As
70-741 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains a production Active Directory forest named contoso.com and a test Active Directory forest named contoso.test. A trust relationship does not exist between the forests. In the contoso.test domain, you create a backup of a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. You transfer the backup of GPO1 to a domain controller in the contoso.com domain. You need to create a GPO in contoso.com based on the settings of GPO1. You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of Administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Get-GPO cmdlet and the Copy- GPO cmdlet.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the New-GPO cmdlet and the Import- GPO cmdlet.
C. From Group Policy Management, create a new starter GPO. Right-click the new starter GPO, and then click Restore from Backup.
D. From Group Policy Management, right-click the Croup Policy Objects container, and then click Manage Backups.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the DNS Server server role installed and has a primary zone for contoso.com. The Active Directory domain contains 500 client computers. 70-741 dumps There are an additional 20 computers in a workgroup. You discover that every client computer on the network can add its record to the contoso.com zone. You need to ensure that only the client computers in the Active Directory domain can register records in the contoso.com zone.
What should you do first?
A. Move the contoso.com zone to a domain controller that is configured as a DNS server
B. Configure the Dynamic updates settings of the contoso.com zone
C. Sign the contoso.com zone by using DNSSEC
D. Configure the Security settings of the contoso.com zone.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 user accounts that reside in an organizational unit (OU) named 0U1. You need to ensure that a user named User1 can link and unlink Group Policy objects (GPOs) to OU1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to User1. What should you do?
A. Modify the permissions on OU1.
B. Run the Set-GPPermission cmdlet.
C. Add User1 to the Group Policy Creator Owners group.
D. Modify the permissions on the User1 account.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a domain controller named DC1 that has the DNS Server server role installed. DC1 has a standard primary DNS zone for contoso.com.
You need to ensure that only client computers in the contoso.com domain will be able to add their records to the contoso.com zone.
What should you do first?
A. Modify the Security settings of Dc1
B. Modify the Security settings of the contoso.com zone.
C. Store the contoso.com zone in Active Directory
D. Sign the contoso.com zone.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You have a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to ensure that a user named User1 can use Windows Server Backup to create a complete backup of Server1. What should you configure?
A. The local groups by using Computer Management
B. A task by using Authorization Manager
C. The User Rights Assignment by using the Local Group Policy Editor
D. The Role Assignment by using Authorization Manager
Correct Answer: A
70-741 dumps
QUESTION 6
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is located on the same subnet as all of the client computers. 70-741 dumps A network technician reports that he receives a “Request timed out” error message when he attempts to use the ping utility to connect to Server1 from his client computer. The network technician confirms that he can access resources on Server1 from his client computer.
You need to configure Windows Firewall with Advanced Security on Server1 to allow the ping utility to connect.
Which rule should you enable?
A. File and Printer Sharing (Echo Request – ICMPv4-In)
B. Network Discovery (WSD-In)
C. File and Printer Sharing (NB-Session-In)
D. Network Discovery (SSDP-In)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains 500 client computers that run Windows 8. All of the client computers connect to the Internet by using a web proxy. You deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the DNS Server server role installed. You configure all of the client computers to use Server1 as their primary DNS server. You need to prevent Server1 from attempting to resolve Internet host names for the client computers. What should you do on Server1?
A. Create a primary zone named “.”.
B. Configure the Security settings of the contoso.com zone.
C. Create a zone delegation for GlobalNames.contoso.com.
D. Create a stub zone named “root”.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an active directory forest. The forest functional level is Windows server 2012. The forest contains a single domain. The domain contains a member server named Server1 that run windows server 2012. You purchase a network scanner named Scanner1 that supports Web Services on Devices (WDS).
You need to share the network scanner on Server1 Which server role should you install on Server1?
A. Web Server (IIS)
B. Fax Server
C. File and Storage Services
D. Print and Document Services
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Your network contains multiple subnets. On one of the subnets, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the DNS Server server role on Server1, and then you create a standard primary zone named contoso.com. You need to ensure that client computers can resolve singlelabel names to IP addresses. What should you do first?
A. Create a reverse lookup zone.
B. Convert the contoso.com zone to an Active Directory-integrated zone.
C. Configure dynamic updates for contoso.com.
D. Create a GlobalNames zone.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed, and all workstations have Windows 8 installed.
You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing a Windows PowerShell cmdlet that activates previously de-activated firewall rules.
Which of the following is the cmdlet being discussed?
A. Set-NetFirewallRule
B. Enable-NetFirewallRule
C. Set-NetIPsecRule
D. Enable-NetIPsecRule
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. An organizational unit (OU) named OU1 contains user accounts and computer accounts.
A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to the domain. GP1 contains Computer Configuration settings and User Configuration settings. 70-741 dumps
You need to prevent the User Configuration settings in GP1 from being applied to users. The solution must ensure that the Computer Configuration settings in GP1 are applied to all client computers. What should you configure?
A. the Group Policy loopback processing mode
B. the Block Inheritance feature
C. the Enforced setting
D. the GPO Status
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
On Server1, you create a printer named Printer1. You share Printer1 and publish Printer1 in Active Directory. You need to provide a group named Group1 with the ability to manage Printer1.
What should you do?
A. From Print Management, configure the Sharing settings of Printer1.
B. From Active Directory Users and Computers, configure the Security settings of Server1- Printer1.
C. From Print Management, configure the Security settings of Printer1.
D. From Print Management, configure the Advanced settings of Printer1.
Correct Answer: C

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[Best Microsoft Real Dumps] Latest Microsoft 70-774 Dumps PDF Materials And Youtube Demo

Latest Microsoft Certification 70-774 dumps pdf training materials and dumps vce youtube update free demo. Lead4pass offers the best Microsoft Certification 70-774 dumps exam questions and answers download free try. https://www.lead4pass.com/70-774.html dumps pdf training resources. High quality Microsoft Certification 70-774 dumps pdf practice files and study guides, pass Microsoft 70-774 exam test easily at first attempt.

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Certification
Exam Name: Perform Cloud Data Science with Azure Machine Learning (beta)
Exam Code: 70-774
Total Questions: 102 Q&As
70-774 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the SNMP Service installed.
You perform an SNMP query against Server1 and discover that the query returns the incorrect identification information.
You need to change the identification information returned by Server1.
What should you do?
A. From the properties of the SNMP Service, modify the Agent settings.
B. From the properties of the SNMP Service, modify the General settings.
C. From the properties of the SNMP Trap Service, modify the Logon settings.
D. From the properties of the SNMP Trap Service, modify the General settings.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your company has an IPv6 network that has 25 segments. You deploy a server on the IPv6 network.
You need to ensure that the server can communicate with all segments on the IPv6 network. 70-774 dumps
What should you do?
A. Configure the IPv6 address as fd00::2b0:d0ff:fee9:4143/8.
B. Configure the IPv6 address as fe80::2b0:d0ff:fee9:4143/64.
C. Configure the IPv6 address as ff80::2b0:d0ff:fee9:4143/64.
D. Configure the IPv6 address as 0000::2b0:d0ff:fee9:4143/64.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your network contains a server that has the SNMP Service installed. You need to configure the SNMP security settings on the server.
Which tool should you use?
A. Local Security Policy
B. Scw
C. Secedit
D. Services console
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. You plan to create a custom script.
You need to ensure that each time the script runs, an entry is added to the Application event log.
Which tool should you use?
A. Eventcreate
B. Eventvwr
C. Wecutil
D. Wevtutil
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Your company is designing its network. The network will use an IPv6 prefix of 2001:DB8:BBCC:0000::/53.
You need to identify an IPv6 addressing scheme that will support 2000 subnets.
Which network mask should you use?
A. /61
B. /62
C. /63
D. /64
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Your network contains 100 servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2.
A server named Server1 is deployed on the network. Server1 will be used to collect events from the Security event logs of the other servers on the network. 70-774 dumps
You need to define the Custom Event Delivery Optimization settings on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. Event Viewer
B. Task Scheduler
C. Wecutil
D. Wevtutil
Correct Answer: C
70-774 dumps
QUESTION 7
You need to capture the HTTP traffic to and from a server every day between 09:00 and 10:00.
What should you do?
A. Create a scheduled task that runs the Netsh tool.
B. Create a scheduled task that runs the Nmcap tool.
C. From Network Monitor, configure the General options.
D. From Network Monitor, configure the Capture options.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the Routing and Remote Access service (RRAS) role service installed. You need to view all inbound VPN packets. The solution must minimize the amount of data collected.
What should you do?
A. From RRAS, create an inbound packet filter.
B. From Network Monitor, create a capture filter.
C. From the Registry Editor, configure file tracing for RRAS.
D. At the command prompt, run netsh.exe ras set tracing rasauth enabled.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2008 R2. A DHCP server is deployed on the network and configured to provide IPv6 prefixes. You need to ensure that when you monitor network traffic, you see the interface identifiers derived from the Extended Unique Identifier (EUI)-64 address.
Which command should you run?
A. netsh.exe interface ipv6 set global addressmaskreply=disabled
B. netsh.exe interface ipv6 set global dhcpmediasense=enabled
C. netsh.exe interface ipv6 set global randomizeidentifiers=disabled
D. netsh.exe interface ipv6 set privacy state=enabled
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Your company uses DHCP to lease IPv4 addresses to computers at the main office. A WAN link connects the main office to a branch office. 70-774 dumps All computers in the branch office are configured with static IP addresses. The branch office does not use DHCP and uses a different subnet. You need to ensure that the portable computers can connect to network resources at the main office and the branch office.
How should you configure each portable computer?
A. Use a static IPv4 address in the range used at the branch office.
B. Use an alternate configuration that contains a static IP address in the range used at the main office.
C. Use the address that was assigned by the DHCP server as a static IP address.
D. Use an alternate configuration that contains a static IP address in the range used at the branch office.
Correct Answer: D

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