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300-160 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two statements about Fibre Channel over IP are true? (Choose two.)
A. FCIP links consist of a maximum of one TCP connection between two FCIP link endpoints.
B. Each FCIP link carries encapsulated FCoE frames.
C. The FCIP link is established between two peers, and the VE Port initialization behavior is identical to a normal E Port.
D. The FCIP profile contains information about the local IP address and TCP parameters.
E. The local IP address of the FCIP profile is the IP address of the management interface of the Cisco MDS switch.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
Which option describes the default predictor on ACE to select the best server to fulfill a client request?
A. the hash cookie, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on a cookie name
B. least bandwidth, which selects the server that processed the least amount of network traffic
C. round robin, which selects the next server in the list of real servers
D. the hash DNS, which selects the server using a hash value that is based on FQDN
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
The Cisco Nexus 1000v Series switches can configure traditional SPAN sessions. Which three statements about the local SPAN source ports are true? (Choose three.)
A. It can be configured to monitor the direction of the traffic.
B. It must be in the same VSAN.
C. It can be port type Ethernet, virtual Ethernet, or port channel.
D. It must be in the same VLAN.
E. It cannot be on a different host VEM as the destination port.
F. It cannot be a port profile.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 4
Which statements are true regarding the Cisco UCS fabric failover feature? 300-160 dumps (Choose three.)
A. FabricSync is used to synchronize MAC addresses to an adjacent fabric interconnect after a server interface failover.
B. Gratuitous ARPs are sent on fabric interconnect uplinks after a server interface failover.
C. Fabric failover can be used on vNICs and vHBAs.
D. Fabric failover is configured as part of the service profile.
E. Fabric interconnects in end-host mode use fabric failover instead of spanning tree to provide redundancy on uplink ports.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 5
What is the main function of the device-alias distribute command?
A. This command distributes the device alias configuration on the existing switch to all the other switches in the Cisco Fabric Services region.
B. This command enables distribution and will send the configuration after a commit is executed.
C. This command changes the distribution mode for device aliases.
D. There is no such command.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You plan to add a new VLAN to your updating service profile template. Assuming that the default maintenance policy is configured, which statement about applying this change is true?
A. The change will be applied immediately once the blade is rebooted.
B. The change will be deferred until the user acknowledges.
C. The change will be applied immediately with no disruption to any bound service profiles.
D. The change will generate an impact summary message.
E. The change will require all bound service profiles to be unbound.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What is the default FSPF cost of a port channel that consists of four 2-Gb/s links, with one link down because of an error?
A. 500
B. 166
C. 250
D. 125
E. 100
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
KAL-AP on the Cisco ACE allows communication with Cisco ACE Global Site Selector, to report virtual IP and real server availability. Which statement is true about KAL-AP?
A. It is a Cisco propriety keepalive.
B. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP entries.
C. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP keepalives.
D. It is used for both Cisco and non-cisco load balancers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which option describes how you would guarantee 30 percent of available bandwidth on interface 1/4?
A. Issue the bandwidth percent 30 command after the interface ethernet1/4 command.
B. Issue the bandwidth percent 30 command after the class best-effort-drop-class command.
C. Issue the bandwidth percentage 30 command after the policy-map policy1-egress command.
D. Issue the bandwidth percentage 30 command after the class best-effort-drop-class command.
E. Bandwidth guarantees are not permitted on output policies.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
ACE can check the health of servers and server farms by configuring health probes (sometimes referred to as keepalives). There are several types of probes.
Which three options are valid ACE probes? (Choose three.)
A. TCP
B. ICMP
C. HTTP
D. IPsec
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 11
Which statement about NPV on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches is true? 300-160 dumps
A. By default, Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches operate in NPV mode. In this mode, the switch providesstandard Fibre Channel switching.
B. In NPV mode, each switch that joins a SAN is assigned a domain ID. Each SAN (or VSAN) supports amaximum of 239 domain IDs, so the SAN has a limit of 239 switches.
C. In NPV mode, the edge switch relays all traffic from server-side sports to the core switch. The core switchprovides TE Port functionality to the downstream NPV switch.
D. In NPV mode, the edge switch appears as a Fibre Channel host to the core switch and as a regular FibreChannel switch to its connected devices.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
The OTV overlay interface is a logical multiaccess and multicast-capable interface that must be explicitly defined by the user, and is the location where the entire OTV configuration is applied. Which two statements about the OTV overlay interface are true? (Choose two.)
A. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame that is destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the overlay interface.
B. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the join interface toward the routed domain.
C. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame that is destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the join interface.
D. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the overlay interface toward the routed domain.
E. The OTV edge device performs the static OTV encapsulation on the Layer 3 packet and sends it to the join interface toward the switching domain.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series implementation has two main components. Which two components together make up the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch? (Choose two.)
A. virtual supervisor module
B. virtual Ethernet module
C. virtual machine NICs
D. virtual machine kernel NICs
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Which three statements about the configuration of vPC+ are true? (Choose three.)
A. The FabricPath switch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.
B. The virtual switch ID of vPC+ must be configured under the FabricPath domain.
C. On the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch, F1 interfaces must be used as the vPC+ peer links.
D. The vPC+ peer link must be configured as a Cisco FabricPath core port.
E. The FabricPath subswitch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.
F. There has to be atleast 4 virtual switches in the FabricPath domain.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 15
What does the mac packet-classify command do when applied to an interface configuration?
A. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only IP packets that enter the interface.
B. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only non-IP packets that enter the interface.
C. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to all packets that enter the interface.
D. It enables MAC ACLs to be used for QoS settings.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Cisco UCS provides integration interfaces and protocols to support heterogeneous data center environments and supports standard monitoring and eventnotification systems, providing data to standard enterprise-management tools. 300-160 dumps
Which two of these lists the primary Cisco UCS interfaces and industry standard-based read-only interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. UCS Manager XML API and UCS CLI
B. SNMP, SMASH CLP, and CIM-XML
C. UCS Manager, DCOS, and Local-mgmt
D. SoL and NX-OS
E. debug-plugin and UCS Manager GUI
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
When testing ICMP access to a functional load-balancing ACE VIP, it fails. What is the reason of this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The interface is shut down
B. An access list is denying ICMP
C. Routing is not configured properly
D. vip icmp-reply is inactive
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
On a Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS), which two statements regarding Ethanalyzer are true? (Choose two.)
A. Interface inbound-low handles Rx and Tx of low-priority control packet
B. Interface inbound-lo handles Rx and Tx of high-priority control packet
C. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth3
D. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth4
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
Which two statements about enhanced zoning are true? (Choose two.)
A. Enhanced zoning is a mode that shows much more detail for the SAN choices when it is viewed in Fabric Manager.
B. Enhanced zoning cannot be enabled per VSAN. It is a chassis-wide setting.
C. Enhanced zoning sets the default zone to the same state in all switches.
D. Enhanced zoning cannot be enabled in an FCoE environment.
E. Enhanced zoning sends ACA to lock the fabric when the administrator starts a zone change.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 20
In a FabricPath topology, each device is identified by a switch ID, and all Layer 2 forwarding tables are built based on the reachability of the switch ID. Which protocol is used to assign the switch ID?
A. No protocol is used. The switch ID is always assigned manually.
B. The Dynamic Resource Allocation Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.
C. The Switch ID Assignment Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.
D. The switch ID is assigned based on the system ID of the device.
Correct Answer: B

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200-355 dumps
QUESTION 1
A lightweight AP has been deployed in local mode in a network that consists of 10 wireless LAN controllers in a single mobility group. The AP has been configured to use primary, secondary, and tertiary Cisco WLCs. Due to a major power failure, all those Cisco WLCs are unavailable.
Which step does the AP take next?
A. The AP reboots and repeatedly attempts to join the configured primary, secondary, and tertiary Cisco WLCs in that order. The process continues until one of the configured Cisco WLCs is available.
B. The AP attempts to join a Cisco WLC configured as a master controller.
C. The AP attempts to join the Cisco WLC that has the greatest capacity available.
D. The AP state transitions to AP Fallback Mode and continues to provide limited WLAN services (that is, no new client authentications) until a Cisco WLC is available.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What must be done for Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS to communicate?
A. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WLC must be configured in the Cisco WCS.
B. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WCS must be configured in the Cisco WLC.
C. The identity certificate of the Cisco WLC must be added to the Cisco WCS.
D. The Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS must exchange identity certificates.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What three components must be the same on a controller and the RADIUS server when adding a RADIUS server to a WLC? 200-355 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Username
B. Shared Secret
C. Index Priority
D. Port Number
E. IP Address
F. Network Mask
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 4
What AnyConnect module can be used to provide a detailed scan list of the Wi-Fi environment?
A. DART
B. Telemetry
C. Web Security
D. NAM
E. Posture
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which statement best describes the ability of a wireless client to access and transmit a data frame to an AP?
A. The client listens to the media until polled by the AP using PCF to send its data.
B. The client listens to the media until a data frame is finished, at which time it transmits, unless a collision of data frames has occurred.
C. The client uses random countdown timers to start the transmission of a data frame.
D. The client listens to the media and countdown timers to start the transmission of a data frame.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
An access point is currently transmitting at 4 mW. The customer needs to increase its signal strength by 6 dB to create a larger wireless cell. What should the new transmit power be?
A. 8 mW
B. 10 mW
C. 12 mW
D. 16 mW
E. 24 mW
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A user is unable to access a lobby administration web page when using a wireless laptop; however, the user can access the page with a wired desktop computer. Which management feature needs to be enabled on the WLC to allow laptop access?
A. management via wireless
B. dynamic interface management
C. HTTP
D. HTTPS
E. TACACS
F. SSH
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A customer wants to deploy Cisco Cloud Wireless architecture with 802.11ac capabilities.
Which access points would meet the customers’ requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco 3700 Access Points
B. Cisco MR34 Access Points
C. Cisco MR18 Access Points
D. Cisco 3600 Access Points
E. Cisco MR72 Access Points
F. Cisco 1570 Access Points
G. Cisco MR26 Access Points
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
During the deployment of a wireless network for data and location services, an engineer is to fine-tune the location services. What is this type of survey called? 200-355 dumps
A. passive fingerprinting
B. passive calibrating
C. active fingerprinting
D. active calibrating
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
200-355 dumps
Select and Place:
200-355 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-355 dumps
QUESTION 11
Which two Cisco WLC management-access methods are available as the default setting? (Choose two.)
A. SSH
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
The administrator needs to create a report that shows all controllers, APs, and Cisco 3300 Series MSEs in the WLAN, including hardware and software information. Which report includes this information?
A. Device > Inventory
B. Mesh > Nodes
C. Network Summary > Executive Summary
D. Network Summary > 802.11 Summary
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two services require an RToWLAN design? (Choose two.)
A. wVoIP
B. video conferencing
C. multicast video
D. Telnet
E. SSH
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
A network engineer in the GUI of WCS version 7 wants to add an access point to a map. Where can this command be found within the drop-down menu?
A. Monitor andgt; Maps
B. Reports andgt; Maps
C. Monitor andgt; Network Summary
D. Configure andgt; Maps
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
What is the equivalent of 26 dBm in milliwatts? 200-355 dumps
A. 4 mW
B. 40 mW
C. 100 mW
D. 400 mW
E. 1000 mW
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
You are designing a wireless network in a medical facility. Which three areas are bad locations in which to install a wireless access point? (Choose three.)
A. in front of the elevators doors
B. in the hallways
C. next to the electrical room
D. inside offices
E. near medical imaging devices
F. in the lobby
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 17
An enterprise needs their iPhones to connect to the EAP-TLS network. How should the devices be configured?
A. push profile and certificate through Configuration Utility
B. configure directly through Settings application
C. email certificate to device then configure through Settings application
D. download certificate from web page then configure through Settings application
E. push profile and certificate through iTunes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which statement about ZigBee technology is true?
A. It has low power consumption.
B. It is designed only for point-to-point communications.
C. It ranges up to 250 meters.
D. It supports data rates up to 1 and 2 Mb/s.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
An AP using version 7.0 MR1 broadcasts a Layer 3 CAPWAP discovery message on the local IP subnet. Which step does the AP take next?
A. Determine if the controller responses include the primary controller.
B. Determine if the controller responses include the master controller.
C. Send a discovery request using DHCP option 43.
D. Send a discovery request using DNS.
E. Send a discovery request using locally stored information on the AP.
F. Send a discovery request using OTAP.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20
Which two features are available in the Cisco WCS Plus license over the base license? (Choose two.)
A. ad hoc rogue detection
B. high availability between two Cisco WCS stations
C. mobility service engine management
D. auto discovery and containment or notification of rogue APs
E. client location to the nearest AP
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 21
Which Cisco program for WLAN client vendors helps to ensure that their devices are interoperable with Cisco WLAN infrastructure?
A. CCX
B. CCMP
C. ASDM
D. WLSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
The network administrator wants an access point to be able to find rogue APs and to support location-based services. 200-355 dumps Which AP mode meets this requirement while having the radios up and preventing client connections?
A. monitor
B. sniffer
C. rogue-detection
D. H-REAP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
When the enterprise-based authentication method is used for WPA2, a bidirectional handshake exchange occurs between the client and the authenticator.
Which five options are results of that exchange being used on a controller-based network? (Choose five.)
A. a bidirectional exchange of a nonce used for key generation
B. binding of a Pairwise Master Key at the client and the controller
C. creation of the Pairwise Transient Key
D. distribution of the Group Transient Key
E. distribution of the Pairwise Master key for caching at the access point
F. proof that each side is alive
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,F

QUESTION 24
Which two statements about the requirements to configure inter-controller roaming are true? (Choose two.)
A. The same mobility domain names are configured across controllers.
B. The same RF group names are configured across controllers.
C. The same controller hardware version is configured across controllers.
D. The same AP manager interface is configured across controllers.
E. The same virtual interface is configured across controllers.
F. The same controller software version is configured across controllers.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 25
In a typical wireless network using WPA, WPA2 or VPN, why is it still possible for a rogue client to launch a DOS attack?
A. WPA and WPA2 are not considered strong encryption algorithms and are easily cracked.
B. 802.11 management frames are easily compromised.
C. Cisco Compatible Extensions v5 are required with WPA, WPA2, or VPN to keep rogues from launching attacks in the wireless network.
D. The message integrity check frames are never encrypted or authenticated, which allows rogues to spoof clients.
Correct Answer: B

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200-310 dumps
QUESTION 1
Why would an engineer implement variable length subnet masks?
A. To make a subnet public
B. To prevent wasting IP addresses
C. To make a subnet its own VLAN
D. To expand an existing subnet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
The red lines refer to STP blocked ports. What happens if the HSRP active moves to the right distribution, and the STP root remains on the left distribution?
A. The STP root becomes the gateway
B. The interdistribution link is used for transit
C. The HSRP standby becomes the gateway
D. The interaccess link is used for transit
E. Host traffic is unable to reach the HSRP active
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
In the traditional hierarchical LAN design,Which two statement about the distribution layer are true? (Choose two.)
A. It typically is connected directly to the internet It provides users direct access to the network
B. It uses Layer 2 switching only
C. It aggregates data from the access layer
D. Policy is implemented at this layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What three design requirements are key to design a Campus Core? 200-310 dumps
A. Low latency
B. Access control
C. Traffic filtering
D. High speed
E. Redundant links
F. QoS tagging
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 5
When designing the threat detection and mitigation portion for the enterprise data center network, which of the following would be the most appropriate solution to consider?
A. 802.1x
B. ACL in the Core layer
C. Cisco Security MARS
D. Cisco Firewall Services Module
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A network engineer has been asked to follow a top down design approach. Which layer of the OSI model is used to start the design?
A. Physical
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Application
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two design approaches provide management of Enterprise Network devices? (Choose two.)
A. In-band
B. Out-of-line
C. Out-of-band
D. In-line
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which two design decision can improve network resiliency? (you have to chose 2 answers)
A. Implement redundant link
B. Increase data plane bandwidth
C. Implement serial device connection
D. Reduce network size
E. Implement redundant topology
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified? 200-310 dumps
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What IPv4 addressing technique is used for proper address planning to reduce the number of entries in a routing table?
A. Filtering
B. Tunneling
C. Summarization
D. Translation
E. Supernetting
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
If two routing protocols have the same route and prefix, which effect do thery have on the routing table?
A. Only the route with the lowest administrative distance is added
B. Only the route with the highest administrative distance is added
C. Both routes are added
D. Neither route is added, and a loop is formed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which three are associated with the distribution layer within the campus design? (Choose three.)
A. Access layer aggregation
B. Route summarization
C. Network trust boundary
D. Next-hop redundancy
E. Layer-2 switching
F. Port security
G. Broadcast suppression
Correct Answer: ABD

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Exam Code: 300-115
Total Questions: 456 Q&As
300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch is overloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. The destination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?
A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
300-115 dumps When a Layer 2 EtherChannel is configured, which statement about placement of the IP address is true?
A. The IP address is placed on the highest numbered member port.
B. The IP address is placed on the port-channel logical interface.
C. The IP address is placed on the lowest numbered member port.
D. The IP address is assigned via DHCP only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A network engineer is installing a switch for temporary workers to connect to. The engineer does not want this switch participating in Spanning Tree with the rest of the network; however, end user connectivity is still required. Which spanning-tree feature accomplishes this?
A. BPDUblock
B. BPDUfilter
C. BPDUignore
D. BPDUguard
E. BPDUdisable
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, local username, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
When you configure private VLANs on a switch, which port type connects the switch to the gateway router?
A. promiscuous
B. community
C. isolated
D. trunked
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
300-115 dumps Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast enabled and it receives BPDUs?
A. BPDU filtering
B. BackboneFast
C. EtherChannel
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which VRRP router is responsible for forwarding packets that are sent to the IP addresses of the virtual router?
A. virtual router master
B. virtual router backup
C. virtual router active
D. virtual router standby
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which option is a benefit of using VSS?
A. reduces cost
B. simplifies configuration
C. provides two independent supervisors with two different control planes
D. removes the need for a First Hop Redundancy Protocol
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to-MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two options are two results of using the command spanning-tree vlan 50 root primary within a spanning-tree network under global configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Spanning tree determines the priority of the current root for VLAN 50 and reduces the priority of the local switch to a lower value.
B. The priority value for VLAN 50 is set to 4094 on the root while the local switch priority is set to 32768.
C. The spanning-tree timers are reduced to improve the convergence time for VLAN 50.
D. All ports that are configured on the current switch with VLAN 50 transition to designated ports.
E. The switchport that is configured for VLAN 50 is the primary connection to the spanning-tree root switch.
Correct Answer: AD

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
lead4pass 100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?
A. shutdown
B. protect
C. shutdown vlan
D. restrict
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass 100-105 dumps
A user cannot reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department are not having a problem.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?A. IP routing is not enabled.
B. The default gateway is not in the same subnet.
C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.
D. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC.
E. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass 100-105 dumps
A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?
A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the routing table?
A. S
B. E
C. D
D. R
E. O
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
A. IEEE 802 1w
B. IEEE 802 1D
C. IEEE 802 1Q
D. IEEE 802 1p
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different subnets?
A. 172.20.1.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 192.168.0.119
D. 239.255.0.1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor? 200-105 dumps
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
200-105 dumps
200-105 dumps
What would be the destination Layer 2 address in the frame header for a frame that is being forwarded by Dubai to the host address of 172.30.4.4?
A. 825
B. 230
C. 694
D. 387
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three.)
A. Network, Application & User Monitoring
B. Network Planning
C. Security Analysis
D. Accounting/Billing
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 7
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? (Select three.)
A. Send an SNMP trap.
B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
200-105 dumps Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?
A. FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69
B. FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69
C. FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69
D. FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. Which of the following are required to solve this? (Choose three)
A. configure static frame relay map entries for each subinterface network.
B. remove the ip address from the physical interface
C. create the virtual interfaces with the interface command
D. configure each subinterface with its own IP address
E. disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks
F. encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP
Correct Answer: BCD

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QUESTION 1
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
Correct Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 2
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. 300-135 pdf After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What are two approaches to maintaining a network? 300-135 dumps (Choose two.)
A. PPDIOO
B. structured
C. bottoms up
D. interrupt-driven
Correct Answer: B,D
210-065 dumps
QUESTION 4
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead? 300-135 dumps
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Exhibit:
210-065 dumps
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
Correct Answer: D,F

QUESTION 8
Which two of the following options are categories of Network Maintenance tasks? 300-135 pdf
A. Firefighting
B. Interrupt-driven
C. Policy-based
D. Structured
E. Foundational
Correct Answer: B,D

QUESTION 9
You enabled CDP on two Cisco Routers which are connected to each other. The Line and Protocol status for the interfaces on both routers show as UP but the routers do not see each other a CDP neighbors. Which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Application
D. Data-Link
E. Network
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. 300-135 dumps A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A technician enters the diag system normal command for a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint. Which action must be done in the CLI before entering this command?
A. Logging must be enabled.
B. Calling services must be stopped.
C. All forced upgrades must be cleared.
D. The Telephone_Srvr service must be restarted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
The microphone on a Cisco TelePresence System 3000 is switching incorrectly to a camera that does not have an active speaker. 210-260 pdf What is the first step that an engineer should take to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Check whether the microphone is properly plugged in.
B. Run the microphone calibration procedure.
C. Plug all microphones into the primary codec.
D. Check whether the cable from the microphone is plugged into the correct receptor on the codec.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which Cisco Video Surveillance device is responsible for providing video streams to monitors after the respective layouts and views are received by the monitors?
A. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Operations Manager
B. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix Viewer
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Manager
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
Correct Answer: D
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 4
A technician is trying to pair a Touch 8 with a Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint, but the codec is not automatically listed in the touch panel. 210-260 dumps What are two possible reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)
A. The codec firmware version is below version TC 6.1.
B. The codec and the Touch 8 are on separate subnets.
C. Pairing visibility mode is not active on the codec.
D. The codec is not compatible with a Touch 8 device.
E. The Touch 8 is connected via the second Ethernet port on the codec.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in the same network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?
A. Minimizing risk
B. Minimizing total cost of ownership
C. Minimizing liability
D. Maximizing compliance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two issues does utilizing an IP network storage solution for IP video surveillance help overcome? (Choose two.)
A. analog to IP conversion
B. large, expandable storage space
C. physical security
D. scalability
E. faster bit rate for storage
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
An engineer is deploying a Cisco Media Experience Engine 3500 to provide various capabilities for ingesting and processing video media and production capabilities. 210-260 pdf Which two advances does the Cisco MXE 3500 provide? (Choose two.)
A. automated graphical integration that can embed metadata overlays on videos during processing
B. over 2 terabytes of storage for both local and streaming media applications
C. automated ingesting of video files based on watch folders
D. clustering capability of up to 20 resource nodes to handle and balance incoming media requests and processing
E. live output abilities to provide DV, DVC Pro, DVC Pro 50, and DVC Pro HD format streams
F. ability to create VoD file outputs to WebEx ARF format
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
What is the proper procedure to manually reset a password on a Cisco TelePresence EX Series endpoint running software version TC7? 210-260 dumps
A. Use SSH to access the device and use the username “cisco” and the password “TANDBERG.”
B. Hold down the mute key on the touch display for 25 seconds and reset the password using the touch screen.
C. When the device is powered down, hold down the power button until the power light blinks twice, then press the power button twice.
D. Tap the power button four times within ten seconds and then use Telnet to connect to the device IP address.
E. Tap the power button five times while the device is powered off and when it boots, use Telnet to connect to the device within 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Due to disk space constraints, the cloud administrator for a cloud service provider wants to see how much storage a particular organization is using for snapshots.
Which report option in Cisco UCS Director provides that data?
A. Billing Report for a Customer
B. VM Activity Report by Group
C. Virtual Infrastructure and Asset Report
D. Storage Inventory Report for a Group
Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which option lists the orchestration types that can be selected when a user orders an application stack in Cisco Prime Service Catalog? 210-255 pdf
A. full, partial, none
B. automatic, semi-automatic, limited, none
C. standard service, VIX deployment, puppet, none
D. standard service, special service, automatic service
Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Cisco TMS is unable to manage endpoints and an engineer is required to capture logs to determine the cause.
What is the menu path that the engineer should follow to capture and download logs from Cisco TMS?
A. Administrative Tools > Diagnostics > TMS Tickets
B. Administrative Tools > TMS Server Maintenance > Download Diagnostic Files
C. Systems > Navigator > Diagnostics > Download Diagnostic Files
D. Systems > Navigator > TMS Logs
Answer: B
210-255 dumps
QUESTION 4           210-255 dumps
The firmware for the primary codec of a Cisco TelePresence System 3010 is being upgraded. Which codec CLI command could be used to check on the progress of the update?
A. utils upgrade display
B. utils system version
C. show upgrade detail
D. show system upgrade
Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A technician has installed and powered on a Cisco TelePresence MCU 5320 and is connected via the console port. The technician needs to determine the IP settings that were automatically assigned via DHCP.
Which command should be entered?
A. xstatus
B. show network eth0
C. status
D. help static
Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Management would like to set up a permanent recurring Cisco TelePresence meeting where the team would dial into to a preconfigured number. 210-255 pdf
Which meeting type should be used?
A. scheduled conference
B. ad hoc conference
C. rendezvous conference
D. multiway conference
Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which objects are exposed when integrating with Cisco UCS Director?
A. catalogs
B. tasks
C. public clouds
D. hybrid clouds
Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which option describes what end user portal access allows?
A. ordering of server and / or application environments based on preconfigured resources available to users access
B. deployment of templates and OVA files
C. sharing files with other portal users
D. registering Physical Compute resources to the environment
Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Management wants to modify Cisco TMS to allow users to configure the call behavior with their associated devices and dial from a single ID.
Which feature needs to be enabled and configured?
A. Smart Scheduler
B. Low-touch Provisioning
C. FindMe
D. CMR Provisioning
Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Where are the main fault logs for root cause analysis located?
A. on your local computer via an SSH session
B. on the server where the application is installed
C. on the database server
D. on the switch that connects the database and application server
Answer: B

QUESTION 11
An administrator wants to customize the alert thresholds in Cisco 210-255 dumps Prime Infrastructure.
Which section under system settings is used to perform this customization?
A. PI Alarms and Events
B. Configuration
C. PI Event Configuration
D. SNMP Configuration
Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A Cisco UCS Director user placed a service request with a workflow.
Under which condition must the user wait for approval?
A. if the workflow is published in the Cisco Prime Service Catalog
B. if the workflow requires approval
C. if there is domain separation
D. if the service request is not standard
Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a feature that improves the performance of software applications that run on the Cisco UCS servers in a data center by bypassing the kernel when sending and receiving networking packets?
A. A, vPath
B. VM-FEX
C. usNIC
D. VMware PassThrough
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD
210-250 dumps
QUESTION 4          210-250 dumps
Which two descriptions of VXLAN are true? (Choose two.)
A. The VXLAN Identifier space is 24 bits.
B. VXLAN uses the Internet Protocol as the transport medium.
C. VXLAN adds 24 bytes of overhead to each packet.
D. VXLAN is primarily designed for small environments.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity characteristics?
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A cloud administrator has deployed Cisco Prime Service Catalog. 210-250 dumps After deployment, which tool is used to build application models which are then deployed into Cisco Prime Service Catalog for consumption?
A. Heat Orchestration
B. Stack Designer
C. End-User Storefront
D. Administrative Portal
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which two features are available in the Cisco UCS Director chargeback module? (Choose two.)
A. Reusable Cost Models
B. Top 10 Reports
C. Dashboard
D. Quotas and Limits
E. Universal Compatibility
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 11
Which option is an open and extensible southbound protocol that supplies policy directly to data center networks?
A. OpFlex
B. vPath
C. VM-FEX
D. OpenDaylight
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following best describes the order of 210-250 dumps operations of FCoE Initialization Protocol?
A. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery, FC Command
B. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
C. FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
D. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
Correct Answer: D

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