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[Best Cisco Real Dumps] Update Free Latest Cisco 200-125 Dumps PDF Practice Files And Youtube

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High quality 200-125 Dumps PDF to get certification in Cisco CCNA Routing and Switching V3. Real Cisco 200-125 dumps exam practice questions and answers in PDF and Practice test format. dumps exam materials free update. Download 200-125 dumps training materials and practice files online, pass 200-125 exam test easily at first try.

Question No : 1
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Answer: B,D,E

Microsegmentation is a network design (functionality) where each workstation or device on a network gets its own dedicated segment (collision domain) to the switch. Each network device gets the full bandwidth of the segment and does not have to share the segment with other devices. Microsegmentation reduces and can even eliminate collisions because each segment is its own collision domain ->. 200-125 pdf
Note: Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions but it increases the number of collision domains.

Question No : 2
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Answer: D

A router on a stick allows you to use sub-interfaces to create multiple logical networks on a single physical interface. 200-125 dumps

Question No : 3
Refer to exhibit:
200-125 dumps
Which two destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)
A. the IP address of Switch 1
B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the IP address of Host C
D. the MAC address of Host C
E. the IP address of the router’s E0 interface
F. the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface
Answer: C,F

While transferring data through many different networks, the source and destination IP addresses are not changed. Only the source and destination MAC addresses are changed.
So in this case Host A will use the IP address of Host C and the MAC address of E0 interface to send data. 200-125 dumps When the router receives this data, it replaces the source MAC address with its own E1 interface’s MAC address and replaces the destination MAC address with Host C’s MAC address before sending to Host C.

Question No : 4
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Answer: A

FTP belongs to Application layer and it is also the 200-125 pdf highest layer of the OSI model.

Question No : 5
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Answer: A,D,E

The idea behind a WAN is to be able to connect two DTE networks together through a DCE network. The network’s DCE device (includes CSU/DSU) provides clocking to the DTEconnected interface (the router’s serial interface).

Question No : 6
Refer to the exhibit:
200-125 dumps
What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.) 200-125 pdf
A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.
Answer: A,C,F

Remember, the source and destination MAC changes as each router hop along with the TTL being decremented but the source and destination IP address remain the same from source to destination.

Question No : 7
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Answer: C

Modern Ethernet networks built with switches and full-duplex connections no longer utilize CSMA/CD. 200-125 dumps CSMA/CD is only used in obsolete shared media Ethernet (which uses repeater or hub).

Question No : 8
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)
A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access
Answer: C,D

Ethernet network is a shared environment so all devices have the right to access to the medium. If more than one device transmits simultaneously, the signals collide and cannot reach the destination.

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[Best Cisco Real Dumps] Latest Cisco 200-155 Dumps PDF Questions And Youtube Free Demo

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Updated Cisco 200-155 exam questions and 200-155 dumps pdf training materials, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free. Pass the Cisco 200-155 exam with the best 200-155 VCE dumps, high quality actual Cisco 200-155 exam questions, practice tests with PDF and VCE format for Cisco 200-155 certification.

Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: AB

Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. 200-155
The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
Correct Answer: D

Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.)
A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.
Correct Answer: ABC

In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols? 200-155
A. transport type all
B. transport output all
C. transport preferred all
D. transport input all
Correct Answer: D

Which two security appliances will you use in a network? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: BE

What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: AC

how to see dhcp conflict?
A. show ip dhcp pool
B. show dhcp database
Correct Answer: A

Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Correct Answer: C

Which type of mac address is aged automatically by the switch?
A. Dynamic
B. Static
C. automatic
D. manual
Correct Answer: A

Which major component of the network virtualization architecture isolate users according to policy?
A. policy enforcement
B. network access control
C. network services virtualization
Correct Answer: B

Which function does IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform to assist with troubleshooting
A. packet-loss detection
B. congestion detection
C. hop-by-hop response time
D. one way jitter measurement
Correct Answer: C

If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B

Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which vlan?
A. on the default vlan
B. on the management vlan
C. on the native vlan
D. on any vlan except the default vlan
Correct Answer: D

Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports on a router?
A. show interface switchport
B. show ip interface brief
C. show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
D. show interface status
Correct Answer: B

What is the maximum working distance of a 1000BASE-ZE SFP transceiver when ordinary single mode fiber?
A. up to 70 kilometers
B. up to 40 kilometers
C. up to 550 meters
D. up to 10 kilometers
Correct Answer: D

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Latest Cisco 400-101 PDF Exam Practice Materials Online Free Update

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Question No : 1
Which two mechanisms can be used to eliminate Cisco 400-101 pdf Express Forwarding polarization? (Choose two.)
A. alternating cost links
B. the unique-ID/universal-ID algorithm
C. Cisco Express Forwarding antipolarization
D. different hashing inputs at each layer of the network
Answer: B,D
This document describes how Cisco 400-101 Express Forwarding (CEF) polarization can cause suboptimal use of redundant paths to a destination network. CEF polarization is the effect when a hash algorithm chooses a particular path and the redundant paths remain completely unused.

How to Avoid CEF Polarization
Alternate between default (SIP and DIP) and full (SIP + DIP + Layer4 ports) hashing inputs configuration at each layer of the network. Alternate between an even and odd number of ECMP links at each layer of the network. The CEF load-balancing does not depend on how the protocol routes are inserted in the routing table. Therefore, the 400-101 OSPF routes exhibit the same behavior as EIGRP. In a hierarchical network where there are several routers that perform load-sharing in a row, they all use same algorithm to load-share.
The hash algorithm load-balances this way by default:
1: 1
2: 7-8
3: 1-1-1
4: 1-1-1-2
5: 1-1-1-1-1
6: 1-2-2-2-2-2
7: 1-1-1-1-1-1-1
8: 1-1-1-2-2-2-2-2
The number before the colon represents the number of equal-cost paths. The number after the colon represents the proportion of 400-101 traffic which is forwarded per path.

This means that:
For two equal cost paths, load-sharing is 46.666%-53.333%, not 50%-50%.
For three equal cost paths, load-sharing is 33.33%-33.33%-33.33% (as expected).
For four equal cost paths, load-sharing is 20%-20%-20%-40% and not 25%-25%-25%-25%.

This illustrates that, when there is even number of ECMP links, the traffic is not loadbalanced.
Cisco 400-101 IOS introduced a concept called unique-ID/universal-ID which helps avoid CEF polarization. This algorithm, called the universal algorithm (the default in current Cisco IOS versions), adds a 32-bit router-specific value to the hash function (called the universal ID – this is a randomly generated value at the time of the switch boot up that can can be manually controlled). This seeds the hash function on each router with a unique ID, which ensures that the same source/destination pair hash into a different value on different routers along the path. This process provides a better network-wide load-sharing and circumvents the polarization issue. This unique -ID concept does not work for an even number of equal-cost paths due to a hardware limitation, but it works perfectly for an odd number of equal-cost paths. In order to overcome this problem, Cisco 400-101 IOS adds one link to the hardware adjacency table when there is an even number of equalcost paths in order to make the system believe that there is an odd number of equal-cost links.

Question No : 2
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two are causes of output queue drops on FastEthernet0/0? (Choose two.)
A. an oversubscribed input service policy on FastEthernet0/0
B. a duplex mismatch on FastEthernet0/0
C. a bad cable connected to FastEthernet0/0
D. an oversubscribed output service policy on FastEthernet0/0
E. The router trying to send more than 100 Mb/s out of FastEthernet0/0
Answer: D,E

Output drops are caused by a congested interface. For example, the traffic rate on the outgoing interface cannot accept all packets that should be sent out, or a service policy is applied that is oversubscribed. The 400-101 ultimate solution to resolve the problem is to increase the line speed. However, there are ways to prevent, decrease, or control output drops when you do not want to increase the line speed. You can prevent output drops only if output drops are a consequence of short bursts of data. If output drops are caused by a constant high-rate flow, you cannot prevent the drops. However, you can control them.

Question No : 3
Which two mechanisms provide Cisco 400-101 IOS XE Software with control plane and data plane separation? (Choose two.)
A. Forwarding and Feature Manager
B. Forwarding Engine Driver
C. Forwarding Performance Management
D. Forwarding Information Base
Answer: A,B

Control Plane and Data Plane Separation
IOS XE introduces an opportunity to enable teams to 400-101 now build drivers for new Data Plane ASICs outside the IOS instance and have them program to a set of standard APIs which in turn enforces Control Plane and Data Plane processing separation. IOS XE accomplishes Control Plane / Data Plane separation through the introduction of the Forwarding and Feature Manager (FFM) and its standard interface to the Forwarding Engine Driver (FED). FFM provides a set of APIs to Control Plane processes. In turn, the FFM programs the Data Plane via the FED and maintains forwarding state for the system. The FED is the instantiation of the hardware driver for the Data Plane and is provided by the platform.

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Download Free Cisco 200-105 Exam PDF Practice Questions Online

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What is the output of the 200-105 exam following code? echo ‘1’ . (print ‘2’) + 3;
A. 123
B. 213
C. 142
D. 214
E. Syntax error
Correct Answer: D


What is the output of the 200-105 following code?
$a = 3; switch ($a) {case 1: echo ‘one’; break; case 2: echo ‘two’; break; default: echo ‘four’; break; case 3: echo ‘three’; break;}
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Correct Answer: C

What is “instanceof” an example of?
A. a boolean
B. an operator
C. a function
D. a language construct
E. a class magic
Correct Answer: B

Which of the following may be used in conjunction with 200-105 pdf CASE inside a SWITCH statement?
A. A scalar
B. An expression
C. A boolean
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D

What is the output of the following code?
$a = ‘a’; $b = ‘b’; echo isset($c) ? $a.$b.$c : ($c = ‘c’).’d’;
A. abc
B. cd
C. 0d
Correct Answer: B

Which of the following are valid identifiers? (Choose 3)
A. function 4You() { }
B. function _4You() { }
C. function object() { }
D. $1 = “Hello”;
E. $_1 = “Hello World”;
Correct Answer: BCE

What super-global should be used to 200-105 access information about uploaded files via a POST request?
B. $_ENV
E. $_GET
Correct Answer: D

What is the difference between “print” and “echo”?
A. There is no difference.
B. Print has a return value, echo does not
C. Echo has a return value, print does not
D. Print buffers the output, while echo does not
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: B

What is the 200-105 dumps output of the following code? echo “1” + 2 * “0x02”;
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 20
E. 7
Correct Answer: C

What is the result of the following bitwise operation in PHP?
1 ^ 2
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4
E. -1
Correct Answer: B

What is the output of the following code? echo “22” + “0.2”, 23 . 1;
A. 220.2231
B. 22.2231
C. 22.2,231
D. 56.2
Correct Answer: B

What is the output of the following 200-105 vce code? $first = “second”; $second = “first”; echo $$$first;
A. “first”
B. “second”
C. an empty string
D. an error
Correct Answer: B

Which of the 200-105 following code snippets DO NOT write the exact content of the file “source.txt” to “target.txt”? (Choose 2)
A. file_put_contents(“target.txt”, fopen(“source.txt”, “r”));
B. file_put_contents(“target.txt”, readfile(“source.txt”));
C. file_put_contents(“target.txt”, join(file(“source.txt”), “\n”));
D. file_put_contents(“target.txt”, file_get_contents(“source.txt”));
E. $handle = fopen(“target.txt”, “w+”); fwrite($handle, file_get_contents(“source.txt”)); fclose($handle);
Correct Answer: BC

What is the recommended method of copying data between two opened files?
A. copy($source_file, $destination_file);
B. copy($destination_file, $source_file);
C. stream_copy_to_stream($source_file, $destination_file);
D. stream_copy_to_stream($destination_file, $source_file);
E. stream_bucket_prepend($source_file, $destination_file);
Correct Answer: C

Which of the 200-105 following will set a 10 seconds read timeout for a stream?
A. ini_set(“default_socket_timeout”, 10);
B. stream_read_timeout($stream, 10);
C. Specify the timeout as the 5th parameter to the fsockopen() function used to open a stream
D. stream_set_timeout($stream, 10);
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D


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Pass Cisco 642-996 Certification Exam With Best 642-996 Study Materials

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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 642-996
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric
Version: Demo


What is one example of typical business 642-996 requirements that are driving the design of installed base data centers?
A. IT reorganization
B. virtualization
C. greater collaboration
D. physical space
Answer: C

What documents are not 642-996 typically an output that is deliverable from the design phase?
A. high-level design
B. site requirements specification
C. troubleshooting procedures
D. migration plan
Answer: C

What is the most common 642-996 design requirement when creating a data center solution?
A. high availability with disaster recovery
B. multicore CPU servers
C. traffic inspection for inbound traffic
D. virtualization of network resources
Answer: A

What is a typical output of the design planning phase that 642-996 vce characterizes an existing data center?
A. a high-level conceptual architecture proposal
B. a gap analysis
C. a verification plan
D. reactive fault detection and correction
Answer: B

Which two characteristics are associated with the core layer of a Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose two.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS—policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols like OSPF
E. Layer 2 default gateway redundancy
F. QoS—classification and queuing
Answer: A, D

Which three characteristics are associated with the aggregation layer of a Data Center Unified 642-996 Fabric network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS—policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols like OSPF
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS—classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
Answer: B, E, G

Which three characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Data Center Unified Fabric 642-996 dumps network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS—policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols like OSPF
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS – classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
Answer: C, F, H

Which protocols are Cisco recommended for 642-996 connecting the main data center to a remote data center?
C. FabricPath
D. vPC
Answer: B

When migrating an existing data center network to a unified fabric network, which transitions should you expect to 642-996 see?
A. IOS to Nexus networking equipment
B. physical to virtual machines
C. Fibre Chanel to FCoE
Answer: C

Which three protocols are effective in minimizing the use of STP in the 642-996 pdf data center design? (Choose three.)
B. vPC
C. vDC
D. FabricPath
E. 802.1ad
Answer: A, B, D

In a medium size Data Center, which 642-996 three routing protocols would you use?
(Choose Three.)
D. RIPv2
Answer: A, B, C

Layer 2 forwarding of multicast traffic with vPC is based on which modified protocol?
C. Auto-RP
D. IGMP snooping
E. Destination-based trees
Answer: D

Given the requirements, which Cisco 642-996 Nexus product is Cisco recommended? A rich feature set that makes it well suited to top-of-rack, middle-of-row, or end- of-row access- layer applications. Data center racks with standards-based 1 and 10 Gigabit Ethernet and FCoE features, and virtual machine awareness features that allow IT departments to consolidate networks. A combination of high port density, lossless Ethernet, wire-speed performance, and extremely low latency that 642-996 exam  makes the switch family well suited to meet the growing demand for 10 Gigabit Ethernet.
A. 1000v
B. 1010
C. 2000
D. 3000
E. 4000
F. 5500
Answer: F


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Prepare For Your Cisco 300-209 Certification Exam Quickly And Easily

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The AIRAID Cold Air Dam 300-209 Air Intake is engineered to give your engine larger amounts of cooler air to produce more horsepower and torque. The intake system retains the original location of the air filter but delivers a big boost with the addition of a huge open-element air inlet protected by Cold Air Dam panels that help to provide a steady, free-flowing supply of cooler outside air into your engine.

The panels mount in the factory air box location and utilize any factory cold air inlet ducts that are present, while adding additional cold 300-209 vce air passages to the filter. The panels also keep the filter isolated from the hot engine compartment air by sealing to the underside of the hood via blade-style weather stripping.


When Cisco ASA applies 300-209 VPN permissions, what is the first set of attributes that it applies?
A. dynamic access policy attributes
B. group policy attributes
C. connection profile attributes
D. user attributes
Correct Answer: A

What are two variables for 300-209 pdf configuring clientless SSL VPN single sign-on? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: BC

To change the title panel on the logon page of the Cisco 300-209 IOS WebVPN portal, which file must you configure?
A. Cisco IOS WebVPN customization template
B. Cisco IOS WebVPN customization general
Correct Answer: A

Which three plugins are available for clientless SSL VPN? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer: BCD

Which command simplifies the task of converting an SSL VPN to an IKEv2 VPN on a Cisco 300-209 dumps ASA appliance that has an invalid IKEv2 configuration?
A. migrate remote-access ssl overwrite
B. migrate remote-access ikev2
C. migrate l2l
D. migrate remote-access ssl
Correct Answer: A

Below is a reference for this question: firewalls/113597-ptn-113597.html
If your IKEv1, or even SSL, configuration already exists, the ASA makes the migration process simple. On the command line, enter the migrate command:
Migrate {l2l | remote-access {ikev2 | ssl} | overwrite} Things of note:
Keyword definitions:
l2l – This converts current IKEv1 l2l tunnels to IKEv2.
Remote access – This converts the 300-209 remote access configuration. You can convert either the IKEv1 or the SSL tunnel groups to IKEv2.
Overwrite – If you have a IKEv2 configuration that you wish to overwrite, then this keyword converts the current IKEv1 Configuration and removes the superfluous
IKEv2 configuration.

Which statement describes a prerequisite for 300-209 single-sign-on Netegrity Cookie Support in an IOC SSL VPN?
A. The Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client must be installed in flash.
B. A SiteMinder plug-in must be installed on the Cisco SSL VPN gateway.
C. A Cisco plug-in must be installed on a SiteMinder server.
D. The Cisco Secure Desktop software package must be installed in flash.
Correct Answer: C

This CAD system utilizes a replacement low-restriction intake tube. The 360-degree conical premium air filter is washable and reusable, less restrictive than traditional paper, and assures superior filtration. The 300-209 Cold Air Dam Air Intake is easy to install with common hand tools. Some 300-209 exam air intakes are not legal for sale or use in California and other states adopting California emission standards, while others are 50 state legal. View the product’s vehicle applications to determine the legal status for each vehicle.

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New Release Cisco 700-505 Dumps And Hottest 700-505 Exam Study Materials

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Best Cisco 700-505 study materials certification training exam for Cisco 700-505 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.

It exam 700-505 SMB Specialization for Account Managers certification training exam material including the examination question and the 700-505 pdf answer, complete by our senior IT lecturers and the Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge product experts, included the current newest 700-505 examination questions.


Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 700-505
Exam Name: UCS Invicta for Account Managers
Version: Demo

Which option describes the ability that “Hyper Scale” provides to Cisco UCS Invicta?
A. Scale out either independently or together
B. Scale up only
C. Scale out only
D. Scale up and out but only at the same time
Correct Answer: A

Which option is not a key 700-505 vce target audience for the Cisco UCS Invicta solution?
A. IT managers/CIOs
B. Application owners
C. Business decision makers
D. Archival library managers
Correct Answer: D

Which two statements about 700-505 the (lash array, based on the Parity Research of TCO. are true? (Choose two.)
A. HDD used 2 times the power of flash array.
B. HDD used 5 times the power of flash array.
C. HDD used 10 times the power of flash array.
D. HDD used 50 times the power of flash array.
E. HDD took 8 times the physical space of flash array.
F. HDD took 15 times the physical space of Hash array
G. HDD took 2 times the physical space of flash array.
Correct Answer: CE

Which two options are the two main products in the Invicta portfolio? (Choose two.)
A. Stand-alone appliance
B. Stand-alone array
C. Scaling appliance
D. Scaling array
E. Latency appliance
F. Latency array
Correct Answer: AC

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It’s also interesting to note that both iPads apparently have only 12GB of storage – this could be due to the prototype status, as Apple may 300-101 not want to use 128GB of storage for a prototype.

Either way, these iPads are definitely not existing iPad Pro units. However with that being said, it’s not confirmation 300-101 that these are photos of prototype second-generation iPad Pros, as the images could still have been doctored.


Unfortunately, there are no images of the sides or rear of the device so there’s no hint at what hardware the iPad Pro 2 could 300-101 dumps feature, but we imagine the iPad Pro 2 leaks will become more common as time goes on and we’ll be updating this article regularly.

Rumors have been circling that Apple may remove the home button from the iPhone 8 and the iPhone 8 Plus expected to be launched in September 2017. Fingerprint sensor placed on the home button is expected 300-101 pdf to be in-built within the screen as found on many Android smartphones. The removal of the physical home button will make the iPhone 8 smaller but the size of the screen will remain the same.

Customers will hope that Apple removes the physical home button in the iPad Pro 2 as well, which would make the next tablets smaller than its predecessors.

Everyone wants better battery life but even competing tablets such as the Surface Pro 4 offer a similar usage time. Apple 300-101 vce could slightly increase the battery capacity of the iPad Pro 2, which may marginally improve the device’s battery performance. However, customers will expect that Apple also addresses the battery drain issues that will ensure consistent battery performance.

Apple has consistently improved the processing power of its tablets. The iPad Pro run on Apple’s A9X processor. It is 300-101 highly likely that the iPad Pro 2 tablets will come running on a faster A10X processor.

The 9.7-inch iPad comes with 2 GB of RAM and the bigger 12.9-inch model includes 4 GB of RAM. It is worth noting that that the Surface Pro 4 can be customized to up to 16 GB of RAM, which assures seamless usage experience.

Higher RAM configuration comes at a cost but it also brings along many benefits such as enhanced gaming experience, smooth 300-101 transition between screens and improved multi-tasking capabilities. Customers will hope that Apple increases the RAM capacity of the 9.7-inch iPad Pro to enhance the overall usage experience.

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