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QUESTION 1
An organization with a centralized dial plan has user extensions as the last four digits of the external DID number. Some users at the head office have overlapping extensions with the users at the branch offices. 300-070 pdf
Which action fixes this issue without changing user extensions and allowing users to call each other across sites?
A. Use site codes.
B. Use different CSSs for both sites.
C. Place both extensions in different partitions.
D. Change the number of digits in the internal extensions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What are two characteristics that are associated with the End User and User account types? (Choose two.)
A. They cannot use LDAP.
B. They are used to authorize applications.
C. They can utilize LDAP.
D. The Application is associated with the End User and User account types.
E. They can be listed in a directory.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which option is the most highly recommended option to install Cisco TelePresence Conductor on the virtual machine? 300-070 dumps
A. Thick Provision Eager Zeroed
B. Thick Provision Lazy Zeroed
C. Thick Provision
D. Thin Provision
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which mechanism is often configured on the edges of a network to control the maximum rate of traffic that is sent or received on an interface and to classify the traffic into priority levels or class of service?
A. routing
B. shaping
C. policing
D. access control
E. traffic regulation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What function does the device pool perform? 300-070 pdf
A. It separates user and physical location information.
B. It sets the default device parameters for all IP phones in the cluster.
C. It sets the location bandwidth used between different locations.
D. It provides a single point of configuration for every device in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Managers have asked to be able to have an extension call them back if it is busy when they try to call it. In what two places can this feature be assigned to the Managers phone? (Choose two.)
A. Device Settings > Softkey Template
B. Device Settings > Default Device Profile Configuration
C. Device Settings > Phone Button Template
D. Device Settings > Device Profile
E. Device Settings > Device Defaults
F. Device Settings > Firmware Load Information
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
Which two types of encoding are available to configure a T1 controller for CAS? (Choose two.)
A. B8SF
B. AMI
C. B8ZS
D. SF
E. AME
F. ESF
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which three options are components of Media Resources Architecture? (Choose three)
A. Music on hold.
B. Media Resource Manager.
C. Media Resource Group.
D. Route list.
E. Route group
F. Media Resource Group List.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 9
Which tool can you use to verify and troubleshoot a dial plan? 300-070 dumps
A. Audit Log Configuration
B. Dialed Number Analyzer
C. CDR Analysis and Reporting
D. Troubleshooting Trace Settings
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which three CLI commands allow you to verify the correct VoIP dial-peer matching? (Choose three.)
A. debug ccsip messages
B. debug voip ccapi inout
C. debug dialpeer match
D. debug voip dialpeer inout
E. show dialplan number
Correct Answer: BDE

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QUESTION 1
A network engineer is asked to configure NetFlow to sample one of every 100 packets on a router’s fa0/0 interface. Which configuration enables sampling, assuming that NetFlow is already configured and running on the router’s fa0/0 interface?
A. flow-sampler-map flow1mode random one-out-of 100 interface fas0/0 flow-sampler flow1
B. flow monitor flow1mode random one-out-of 100 interface fas0/0 ip flow monitor flow1
C. flow-sampler-map flow1one-out-of 100 interface fas0/0 flow-sampler flow1
D. ip flow-export source fas0/0 one-out-of 100
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You are the administrator of a multicontext transparent-mode Cisco ASA that uses a shared interface that belongs to more than one context. 300-206 pdf Because the same interface will be used within all three contexts, which statement describes how you will ensure that return traffic will reach the correct context?
A. Interfaces may not be shared between contexts in routed mode.
B. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the no mac-address auto command.
C. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the mac-address auto command.
D. Use static routes on the Cisco ASA to ensure that traffic reaches the correct context.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which action is considered a best practice for the Cisco ASA firewall?
A. Use threat detection to determine attacks
B. Disable the enable password
C. Disable console logging
D. Enable ICMP permit to monitor the Cisco ASA interfaces
E. Enable logging debug-trace to send debugs to the syslog server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
300-206 dumps
According to the logging configuration on the Cisco ASA, what will happen if syslog server 10.10.2.40 fails? 300-206 dumps
A. New connections through the ASA will be blocked and debug system logs will be sent to the internal buffer.
B. New connections through the ASA will be blocked and informational system logs will be sent to the internalbuffer.C. New connections through the ASA will be blocked and system logs will be sent to server 10.10.2.41.
D. New connections through the ASA will be allowed and system logs will be sent to server 10.10.2.41.
E. New connections through the ASA will be allowed and informational system logs will be sent to the internalbuffer.
F. New connections through the ASA will be allowed and debug system logs will be sent to the internal buffer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which command configures the SNMP server group1 to enable authentication for members of the access list east?
A. snmp-server group group1 v3 auth access east
B. snmp-server group1 v3 auth access east
C. snmp-server group group1 v3 east
D. snmp-server group1 v3 east access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which two statements about Cisco IOS Firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. It provides stateful packet inspection.
B. It provides faster processing of packets than Cisco ASA devices provide.
C. It provides protocol-conformance checks against traffic.
D. It eliminates the need to secure routers and switches throughout the network.
E. It eliminates the need to secure host machines throughout the network.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following parameters:
-The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on networkdevices.
-The user needs read-write access to policies.
-The account has no more rights than necessary for the job.
What role will be assigned to the user? 300-206 pdf
A. Administrator
B. Security administrator
C. System administrator
D. Root Administrator
E. Exec administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which two options are purposes of the packet-tracer command? (Choose two.)
A. to filter and monitor ingress traffic to a switch
B. to configure an interface-specific packet trace
C. to simulate network traffic through a data path
D. to debug packet drops in a production network
E. to automatically correct an ACL entry in an ASA
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9
For which purpose is the Cisco ASA CLI command aaa authentication match used?
A. Enable authentication for SSH and Telnet connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
B. Enable authentication for console connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
C. Enable authentication for connections through the Cisco ASA appliance.
D. Enable authentication for IPsec VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
E. Enable authentication for SSL VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
F. Enable authentication for Cisco ASDM connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco product provides a GUI-based device management tool to configure Cisco access routers?
A. Cisco ASDM
B. Cisco CP Express
C. Cisco ASA 5500
D. Cisco CP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A Cisco ASA is configured for TLS proxy. When should the security appliance force remote IP phones connecting to the phone proxy through the internet to be in secured mode?
A. When the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is in non-secure mode
B. When the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is in secure mode only
C. When the Cisco Unified Communications Manager is not part of a cluster
D. When the Cisco ASA is configured for IPSec VPN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which statement about Cisco ASA multicast routing support is true? 300-206 dumps
A. The Cisco ASA appliance supports PIM dense mode, sparse mode, and BIDIR-PIM.
B. The Cisco ASA appliance supports only stub multicast routing by forwarding IGMP messages from multicastreceivers to the upstream multicast router.
C. The Cisco ASA appliance supports DVMRP and PIM.
D. The Cisco ASA appliance supports either stub multicast routing or PIM, but both cannot be enabled at thesame time.
E. The Cisco ASA appliance supports only IGMP v1.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A customer wants to know the options that are available when using all Cisco TelePresence SX Series endpoints in a multisite conference that is hosted locally. What are three capabilities of the Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint during a native multisite call? (Choose three.)
A. ability to change the local layout to prominent mode
B. ability to change the layout of remote participants to prominent mode
C. ability to change the Self-View status of remote participants
D. ability to control the camera of remote participants
E. ability to change the contact status of remote participants
F. ability to change the layout of remote participants to multisite mode
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
What is the proper procedure to manually reset a password on a Cisco TelePresence EX Series endpoint running software version TC7?
A. Use SSH to access the device and use the username “cisco” and the password “TANDBERG.”
B. Hold down the mute key on the touch display for 25 seconds and reset the password using the touch screen.
C. When the device is powered down, hold down the power button until the power light blinks twice, then press the power button twice.
D. Tap the power button four times within ten seconds and then use Telnet to connect to the device IP address.
E. Tap the power button five times while the device is powered off and when it boots, use Telnet to connect to the device within 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A technician is trying to pair a Touch 8 with a Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint, but the codec is not automatically listed in the touch panel. 210-065 dumps What are two possible reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)
A. The codec firmware version is below version TC 6.1.
B. The codec and the Touch 8 are on separate subnets.
C. Pairing visibility mode is not active on the codec.
D. The codec is not compatible with a Touch 8 device.
E. The Touch 8 is connected via the second Ethernet port on the codec.
Correct Answer: BC
210-065 dumps
QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Video Surveillance device is responsible for providing video streams to monitors after therespective layouts and views are received by the monitors?
A. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Operations Manager
B. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix Viewer
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Manager
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
The microphone on a Cisco TelePresence System 3000 is switching incorrectly to a camera that does not have an active speaker. What is the first step that an engineer should take to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Check whether the microphone is properly plugged in.
B. Run the microphone calibration procedure.
C. Plug all microphones into the primary codec.
D. Check whether the cable from the microphone is plugged into the correct receptor on the codec.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A Cisco TelePresence VCS displays this alarm: “Root password is set to default.” How can this security warning be addressed? 210-065 pdf
A. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > User Settings, and change the root password.
B. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Administrator and issue the command xconfig root set passwd.
C. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command set password, and enter the new password when prompted.
D. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command passwd, and enter the new password when prompted.
E. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > System Settings, and change the root password.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which three standards are supported for streaming live video on Cisco TCS? (Choose three.)
A. H.265
B. H.261
C. H.264
D. H.263
E. H.262
F. H.270
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 8
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in the same network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two issues does utilizing an IP network storage solution for IP video surveillance help overcome? (Choose two.) 210-065 dumps
A. analog to IP conversion
B. large, expandable storage space
C. physical security
D. scalability
E. faster bit rate for storage
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
An engineer is deploying a Cisco Media Experience Engine 3500 to provide various capabilities for ingesting and processing video media and production capabilities. 210-065 pdf Which two advances does the Cisco MXE 3500 provide? (Choose two.)
A. automated graphical integration that can embed metadata overlays on videos during processing
B. over 2 terabytes of storage for both local and streaming media applications
C. automated ingesting of video files based on watch folders
D. clustering capability of up to 20 resource nodes to handle and balance incoming media requests and processing
E. live output abilities to provide DV, DVC Pro, DVC Pro 50, and DVC Pro HD format streams
F. ability to create VoD file outputs to WebEx ARF format
Correct Answer: AC

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QUESTION 1
Which two options are disadvantages of MPLS layers 3 VPN services? (choose two)
A. They requires cooperation with the service provider to implement transport of non-IP traffic.
B. SLAs are not supported by the service provider.
C. It requires customers to implement QoS to manage congestion in the network.
D. Integration between Layers 2 and 3 peering services is not supported.
E. They may be limited by the technology offered by the service provider.
F. They can transport only IPv6 routing traffic.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about the DES algorithm are true? (Choose two)
A. The DES algorithm is based on asymmetric cryptography.
B. The DES algorithm is a stream cipher.
C. The DES algorithm is based on symmetric cryptography.
D. The DES algorithm encrypts a block of 128 bits.
E. The DES algorithm uses a 56-bit key.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
Which two statement about PVLAN port types are true? (Choose two) 400-251 pdf
A. A community port can send traffic to community port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
B. An isolated port can send and receive traffic only to and from promiscuous ports.
C. An isolated port can receive traffic from promiscuous port in an community on its broadcast domain, but can send traffic only to port in its own community.
D. A promiscuous port can send traffic promiscuous port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
E. A community port can send traffic to promiscuous port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
F. A Promiscuous port can send traffic to all ports within a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BF
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 4                       400-251 dumps
What is the name of the unique tool/feature in cisco security manager that is used to merge an access list based on the source/destination IP address service or combination of these to provide a manageable view of access policies?
A. merge rule tool
B. policy simplification tool
C. rule grouping tool
D. object group tool
E. combine rule tool
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which two characteristics of DTLS are true?(Choose two )
A. It is used mostly by applications that use application layer object-protocols B. It includes a congestion control mechanism
B. It completes key negotiation and bulk data transfer over a single channel.
C. It supports long data transfers and connectionless data transfers.
D. It cannot be used if NAT exists along the path.
E. It concludes a retransmission method because it uses an unreliable datagram transport
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Which three statements about RLDP are true? (Choose three)
A. It can detect rogue Aps that use WPA encryption
B. It detects rogue access points that are connected to the wired network
C. The AP is unable to serve clients while the RLDP process is active
D. It can detect rogue APs operating only on 5 GHz
E. Active Rogue Containment can be initiated manually against rogue devices detected on the wired network
F. It can detect rogue APs that use WEP encryption
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 7
Which of these is a core function of the risk assessment process? (Choose one.) 400-251 dumps
A. performing regular network upgrades
B. performing network optimization
C. performing network posture validation
D. establishing network baselines
E. prioritizing network roll-outs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two options are unicast address types for IPv6 addressing?(Choose two)
A. Link-local.
B. Established.
C. Global
D. Dynamic
E. Static
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
What security element must an organization have in place before it can implement a security audit and validate the audit results? 400-251 pdf
A. firewall
B. network access control
C. an incident response team
D. a security policy
E. a security operation center
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Within Platform as a Service, which two components are managed by the customer?(Choose two)
A. Data.
B. Networking.
C. Middleware.
D. Applications.
E. Operating system
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11
From the list below, which one is the major benefit of AMP Threat GRID?
A. AMP Threat Grid collects file information from customer servers and run tests on them to see if they are infected with viruses
B. AMP Threat Grid learns ONLY from data you pass on your network and not from anything else to monitor for suspicious behavior. This makes the system much faster and efficient
C. AMP Threat Grid combines Static, and Dynamic Malware analysis with threat intelligence into one combined solution
D. AMP Threat Grid analyzes suspicious behavior in your network against exactly 400 behavioral indicators
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about the ISO are true? (Choose two) 400-251 dumps
A. The ISO is a government-based organization.
B. The ISO has three membership categories: member, correspondent, and subscribers.
C. Only member bodies have voting rights.
D. Correspondent bodies are small countries with their own standards organization.
E. Subscriber members are individual organizations.
Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 1
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Which two options describe what can happen when devices are in the same broadcast domain? (Choose two.) 640-911 pdf
A. They are on the same VLAN and the same switch.
B. They are on different VLANs and the same switch.
C. They are on different VLANs and different switches.
D. They are on the same VLAN and different switches.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
Ethernet 1/1 is assigned IP address 10.1.1.1 with subnet mask 255.255.255.0. Which configuration is used to configure EIGRP on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?
A. feature eigrp!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0no shutdown!router eigrp 1network 10.1.1.00.0.0.255
B. feature eigrp!router eigrp 1autonomous-system 1!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1/24ip router eigrp 1no shutdown
C. router eigrp 1autonomous-system 1!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1/24ip router eigrp 1no shutdown
D. feature eigrp!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1/24no shutdown!router eigrp 1network 10.1.1.00.0.0.255
Correct Answer: B
640-911 dumps
QUESTION 4                 640-911 dumps
Which two options describe services that are provided by TCP? (Choose two.)
A. session multiplexing
B. EtherTypes identify destination services
C. connection-oriented
D. best-effort packet delivery
E. binary translation
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which two data center technologies are part of the IEEE 802.3 standard for Ethernet-based LANs? (Choose two.)
A. 40 Gb/s
B. 10 Gb/s
C. WLAN
D. Smart Grid
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
Which three IP addresses are examples of an RFC 1918 address? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.3.1/24
B. 209.165.201.5/27
C. 209.165.200.225/27
D. 10.30.20.1/28
E. 192.168.200.50/24
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 8
Unlike IPv6, which feature is available only in IPv4? 640-911 dumps
A. broadcast
B. anycast
C. multicast
D. unicast
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which command displays the Trunking Native Mode VLAN on port Ethernet 1/18?
A. show running-config switchport e1/18
B. show running-config e1/18 switchport
C. show interface e1/18
D. show interface e1/18 switchport
E. show interface e1/18 native
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What is the result when two data transmissions are sent at the same time? 640-911 pdf
A. A collision occurs and both devices stop transmission and back off.
B. A collision occurs and one device retransmits.
C. All traffic continues to transmit.
D. A collision occurs and both devices resend transmissions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You are designing a network that provides FCoE, FabricPath, OTV, and Layer 3 functionalities. Which device can perform these functionalities?
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
C. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches
D. Cisco ASR 1001 Router
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
What two statements about functions within the OSI layer model are true? 640-911 dumps (Choose two.)
A. data at Layer 3 is referred to as a Frame
B. routing function happen at Layer 3
C. network layer is responsible for assigning a MAC address to NIC
D. ARP is a Layer 2 protocol
E. encryption of data happens at the Transport Layer
Correct Answer: BD

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Question No : 1
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Answer: B,D,E

Explanation:
Microsegmentation is a network design (functionality) where each workstation or device on a network gets its own dedicated segment (collision domain) to the switch. Each network device gets the full bandwidth of the segment and does not have to share the segment with other devices. Microsegmentation reduces and can even eliminate collisions because each segment is its own collision domain ->. 200-125 pdf
Note: Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions but it increases the number of collision domains.

Question No : 2
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Answer: D

Explanation:
A router on a stick allows you to use sub-interfaces to create multiple logical networks on a single physical interface. 200-125 dumps

Question No : 3
Refer to exhibit:
200-125 dumps
Which two destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)
A. the IP address of Switch 1
B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the IP address of Host C
D. the MAC address of Host C
E. the IP address of the router’s E0 interface
F. the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface
Answer: C,F

Explanation:
While transferring data through many different networks, the source and destination IP addresses are not changed. Only the source and destination MAC addresses are changed.
So in this case Host A will use the IP address of Host C and the MAC address of E0 interface to send data. 200-125 dumps When the router receives this data, it replaces the source MAC address with its own E1 interface’s MAC address and replaces the destination MAC address with Host C’s MAC address before sending to Host C.

Question No : 4
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Answer: A

Explanation:
FTP belongs to Application layer and it is also the 200-125 pdf highest layer of the OSI model.

Question No : 5
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Answer: A,D,E

Explanation:
The idea behind a WAN is to be able to connect two DTE networks together through a DCE network. The network’s DCE device (includes CSU/DSU) provides clocking to the DTEconnected interface (the router’s serial interface).

Question No : 6
Refer to the exhibit:
200-125 dumps
What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.) 200-125 pdf
A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.
Answer: A,C,F

Explanation:
Remember, the source and destination MAC changes as each router hop along with the TTL being decremented but the source and destination IP address remain the same from source to destination.

Question No : 7
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Modern Ethernet networks built with switches and full-duplex connections no longer utilize CSMA/CD. 200-125 dumps CSMA/CD is only used in obsolete shared media Ethernet (which uses repeater or hub).

Question No : 8
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)
A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access
Answer: C,D

Explanation:
Ethernet network is a shared environment so all devices have the right to access to the medium. If more than one device transmits simultaneously, the signals collide and cannot reach the destination.

Read more: http://www.lead4pass.com/200-125.html dumps pdf questions and answers online free update.

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[Best Cisco Real Dumps] Latest Cisco 200-155 Dumps PDF Questions And Youtube Free Demo

Updated Cisco 200-155 exam questions and 200-155 dumps pdf training materials, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free. Pass the Cisco 200-155 exam with the http://www.itfinal.com/200-155.html best 200-155 VCE dumps, high quality actual Cisco 200-155 exam questions, practice tests with PDF and VCE format for Cisco 200-155 certification.

QUESTION 1
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
200-155
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 4
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. 200-155
200-155
The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.)
A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 6
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols? 200-155
A. transport type all
B. transport output all
C. transport preferred all
D. transport input all
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which two security appliances will you use in a network? (Choose two.)
A. ATM
B. IDS
C. IOS
D. IOX
E. IPS
F. SDM
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
how to see dhcp conflict?
A. show ip dhcp pool
B. show dhcp database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which type of mac address is aged automatically by the switch?
A. Dynamic
B. Static
C. automatic
D. manual
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which major component of the network virtualization architecture isolate users according to policy?
A. policy enforcement
B. network access control
C. network services virtualization
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which function does IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform to assist with troubleshooting
A. packet-loss detection
B. congestion detection
C. hop-by-hop response time
D. one way jitter measurement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which vlan?
A. on the default vlan
B. on the management vlan
C. on the native vlan
D. on any vlan except the default vlan
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports on a router?
A. show interface switchport
B. show ip interface brief
C. show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
D. show interface status
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
What is the maximum working distance of a 1000BASE-ZE SFP transceiver when ordinary single mode fiber?
A. up to 70 kilometers
B. up to 40 kilometers
C. up to 550 meters
D. up to 10 kilometers
Correct Answer: D

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Latest Cisco 400-101 PDF Exam Practice Materials Online Free Update

Question No : 1
Which two mechanisms can be used to eliminate Cisco 400-101 pdf Express Forwarding polarization? (Choose two.)
A. alternating cost links
B. the unique-ID/universal-ID algorithm
C. Cisco Express Forwarding antipolarization
D. different hashing inputs at each layer of the network
Answer: B,D
400-101
Explanation:
This document describes how Cisco 400-101 Express Forwarding (CEF) polarization can cause suboptimal use of redundant paths to a destination network. CEF polarization is the effect when a hash algorithm chooses a particular path and the redundant paths remain completely unused.

How to Avoid CEF Polarization
Alternate between default (SIP and DIP) and full (SIP + DIP + Layer4 ports) hashing inputs configuration at each layer of the network. Alternate between an even and odd number of ECMP links at each layer of the network. The CEF load-balancing does not depend on how the protocol routes are inserted in the routing table. Therefore, the 400-101 OSPF routes exhibit the same behavior as EIGRP. In a hierarchical network where there are several routers that perform load-sharing in a row, they all use same algorithm to load-share.
400-101
The hash algorithm load-balances this way by default:
1: 1
2: 7-8
3: 1-1-1
4: 1-1-1-2
5: 1-1-1-1-1
6: 1-2-2-2-2-2
7: 1-1-1-1-1-1-1
8: 1-1-1-2-2-2-2-2
The number before the colon represents the number of equal-cost paths. The number after the colon represents the proportion of 400-101 traffic which is forwarded per path.

This means that:
For two equal cost paths, load-sharing is 46.666%-53.333%, not 50%-50%.
For three equal cost paths, load-sharing is 33.33%-33.33%-33.33% (as expected).
For four equal cost paths, load-sharing is 20%-20%-20%-40% and not 25%-25%-25%-25%.

This illustrates that, when there is even number of ECMP links, the traffic is not loadbalanced.
Cisco 400-101 IOS introduced a concept called unique-ID/universal-ID which helps avoid CEF polarization. This algorithm, called the universal algorithm (the default in current Cisco IOS versions), adds a 32-bit router-specific value to the hash function (called the universal ID – this is a randomly generated value at the time of the switch boot up that can can be manually controlled). This seeds the hash function on each router with a unique ID, which ensures that the same source/destination pair hash into a different value on different routers along the path. This process provides a better network-wide load-sharing and circumvents the polarization issue. This unique -ID concept does not work for an even number of equal-cost paths due to a hardware limitation, but it works perfectly for an odd number of equal-cost paths. In order to overcome this problem, Cisco 400-101 IOS adds one link to the hardware adjacency table when there is an even number of equalcost paths in order to make the system believe that there is an odd number of equal-cost links.

Question No : 2
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101
Which two are causes of output queue drops on FastEthernet0/0? (Choose two.)
A. an oversubscribed input service policy on FastEthernet0/0
B. a duplex mismatch on FastEthernet0/0
C. a bad cable connected to FastEthernet0/0
D. an oversubscribed output service policy on FastEthernet0/0
E. The router trying to send more than 100 Mb/s out of FastEthernet0/0
Answer: D,E

Explanation:
Output drops are caused by a congested interface. For example, the traffic rate on the outgoing interface cannot accept all packets that should be sent out, or a service policy is applied that is oversubscribed. The 400-101 ultimate solution to resolve the problem is to increase the line speed. However, there are ways to prevent, decrease, or control output drops when you do not want to increase the line speed. You can prevent output drops only if output drops are a consequence of short bursts of data. If output drops are caused by a constant high-rate flow, you cannot prevent the drops. However, you can control them.

Question No : 3
Which two mechanisms provide Cisco 400-101 IOS XE Software with control plane and data plane separation? (Choose two.)
A. Forwarding and Feature Manager
B. Forwarding Engine Driver
C. Forwarding Performance Management
D. Forwarding Information Base
Answer: A,B

Explanation:
Control Plane and Data Plane Separation
IOS XE introduces an opportunity to enable teams to 400-101 now build drivers for new Data Plane ASICs outside the IOS instance and have them program to a set of standard APIs which in turn enforces Control Plane and Data Plane processing separation. IOS XE accomplishes Control Plane / Data Plane separation through the introduction of the Forwarding and Feature Manager (FFM) and its standard interface to the Forwarding Engine Driver (FED). FFM provides a set of APIs to Control Plane processes. In turn, the FFM programs the Data Plane via the FED and maintains forwarding state for the system. The FED is the instantiation of the hardware driver for the Data Plane and is provided by the platform.

Read more: http://www.dumpsoon.com/400-101.html Best Cisco 400-101 pdf exam study guide and materials online free download, pass Cisco 400-101 exam test easily at first attempt.

Reference: http://www.braindump4it.com/salesforce-dev-401-dumps/

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Download Free Cisco 200-105 Exam PDF Practice Questions Online

QUESTION 1
What is the output of the 200-105 exam following code? echo ‘1’ . (print ‘2’) + 3;
A. 123
B. 213
C. 142
D. 214
E. Syntax error
Correct Answer: D

200-105

QUESTION 2
What is the output of the 200-105 following code?
$a = 3; switch ($a) {case 1: echo ‘one’; break; case 2: echo ‘two’; break; default: echo ‘four’; break; case 3: echo ‘three’; break;}
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is “instanceof” an example of?
A. a boolean
B. an operator
C. a function
D. a language construct
E. a class magic
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following may be used in conjunction with 200-105 pdf CASE inside a SWITCH statement?
A. A scalar
B. An expression
C. A boolean
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What is the output of the following code?
$a = ‘a’; $b = ‘b’; echo isset($c) ? $a.$b.$c : ($c = ‘c’).’d’;
A. abc
B. cd
C. 0d
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following are valid identifiers? (Choose 3)
A. function 4You() { }
B. function _4You() { }
C. function object() { }
D. $1 = “Hello”;
E. $_1 = “Hello World”;
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 7
What super-global should be used to 200-105 access information about uploaded files via a POST request?
A. $_SERVER
B. $_ENV
C. $_POST
D. $_FILES
E. $_GET
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What is the difference between “print” and “echo”?
A. There is no difference.
B. Print has a return value, echo does not
C. Echo has a return value, print does not
D. Print buffers the output, while echo does not
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is the 200-105 dumps output of the following code? echo “1” + 2 * “0x02”;
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 20
E. 7
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is the result of the following bitwise operation in PHP?
1 ^ 2
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4
E. -1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
What is the output of the following code? echo “22” + “0.2”, 23 . 1;
A. 220.2231
B. 22.2231
C. 22.2,231
D. 56.2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
What is the output of the following 200-105 vce code? $first = “second”; $second = “first”; echo $$$first;
A. “first”
B. “second”
C. an empty string
D. an error
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the 200-105 following code snippets DO NOT write the exact content of the file “source.txt” to “target.txt”? (Choose 2)
A. file_put_contents(“target.txt”, fopen(“source.txt”, “r”));
B. file_put_contents(“target.txt”, readfile(“source.txt”));
C. file_put_contents(“target.txt”, join(file(“source.txt”), “\n”));
D. file_put_contents(“target.txt”, file_get_contents(“source.txt”));
E. $handle = fopen(“target.txt”, “w+”); fwrite($handle, file_get_contents(“source.txt”)); fclose($handle);
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
What is the recommended method of copying data between two opened files?
A. copy($source_file, $destination_file);
B. copy($destination_file, $source_file);
C. stream_copy_to_stream($source_file, $destination_file);
D. stream_copy_to_stream($destination_file, $source_file);
E. stream_bucket_prepend($source_file, $destination_file);
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which of the 200-105 following will set a 10 seconds read timeout for a stream?
A. ini_set(“default_socket_timeout”, 10);
B. stream_read_timeout($stream, 10);
C. Specify the timeout as the 5th parameter to the fsockopen() function used to open a stream
D. stream_set_timeout($stream, 10);
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/200-105-icnd2.html

Read more: http://www.passitdump.com/200-105.html

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Pass Cisco 642-996 Certification Exam With Best 642-996 Study Materials

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 642-996
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric
Version: Demo

642-996

QUESTION: 1
What is one example of typical business 642-996 requirements that are driving the design of installed base data centers?
A. IT reorganization
B. virtualization
C. greater collaboration
D. physical space
Answer: C

QUESTION: 2
What documents are not 642-996 typically an output that is deliverable from the design phase?
A. high-level design
B. site requirements specification
C. troubleshooting procedures
D. migration plan
Answer: C

QUESTION: 3
What is the most common 642-996 design requirement when creating a data center solution?
A. high availability with disaster recovery
B. multicore CPU servers
C. traffic inspection for inbound traffic
D. virtualization of network resources
Answer: A

QUESTION: 4
What is a typical output of the design planning phase that 642-996 vce characterizes an existing data center?
A. a high-level conceptual architecture proposal
B. a gap analysis
C. a verification plan
D. reactive fault detection and correction
Answer: B

QUESTION: 5
Which two characteristics are associated with the core layer of a Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose two.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS—policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols like OSPF
E. Layer 2 default gateway redundancy
F. QoS—classification and queuing
Answer: A, D

QUESTION: 6
Which three characteristics are associated with the aggregation layer of a Data Center Unified 642-996 Fabric network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS—policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols like OSPF
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS—classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
Answer: B, E, G

QUESTION: 7
Which three characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Data Center Unified Fabric 642-996 dumps network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS—policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols like OSPF
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS – classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
Answer: C, F, H

QUESTION: 8
Which protocols are Cisco recommended for 642-996 connecting the main data center to a remote data center?
A. LISP
B. OTV
C. FabricPath
D. vPC
Answer: B

QUESTION: 9
When migrating an existing data center network to a unified fabric network, which transitions should you expect to 642-996 see?
A. IOS to Nexus networking equipment
B. physical to virtual machines
C. Fibre Chanel to FCoE
D. iSCSI to NAS
Answer: C

QUESTION: 10
Which three protocols are effective in minimizing the use of STP in the 642-996 pdf data center design? (Choose three.)
A. FCoE
B. vPC
C. vDC
D. FabricPath
E. 802.1ad
F. STP
Answer: A, B, D

QUESTION: 11
In a medium size Data Center, which 642-996 three routing protocols would you use?
(Choose Three.)
A. EIGRP
B. ISIS
C. OSPF
D. RIPv2
E. HSRP
Answer: A, B, C

QUESTION: 12
Layer 2 forwarding of multicast traffic with vPC is based on which modified protocol?
A. CGMP
B. PIM SS
C. Auto-RP
D. IGMP snooping
E. Destination-based trees
Answer: D

QUESTION: 13
Given the requirements, which Cisco 642-996 Nexus product is Cisco recommended? A rich feature set that makes it well suited to top-of-rack, middle-of-row, or end- of-row access- layer applications. Data center racks with standards-based 1 and 10 Gigabit Ethernet and FCoE features, and virtual machine awareness features that allow IT departments to consolidate networks. A combination of high port density, lossless Ethernet, wire-speed performance, and extremely low latency that 642-996 exam  makes the switch family well suited to meet the growing demand for 10 Gigabit Ethernet.
A. 1000v
B. 1010
C. 2000
D. 3000
E. 4000
F. 5500
Answer: F

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/specialist-dcufd.html

Read more: http://www.passitdump.com/642-996.html

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