New IT Certification Real Exam Questions And Answers For Cisco, CompTIA, HP, IBM And Microsoft http://www.certpub.com 100% Latest Update According To The Latest Real Exam, Helps You to Get Your IT Certification Easily. Thu, 21 Sep 2017 03:54:09 +0000 en-US hourly 1 https://wordpress.org/?v=4.8.2 [Best Microsoft Real Dumps] Latest Microsoft 70-774 Dumps PDF Materials And Youtube Demo http://www.roboleague.bg?page=latest-microsoft-70-774-dumps/ Tue, 12 Sep 2017 07:07:37 +0000 http://www.roboleague.bg?page=?p=156 Latest Microsoft Certification 70-774 dumps pdf training materials and dumps vce youtube update free demo. Lead4pass offers the best Microsoft Certification 70-774 dumps exam questions and answers download free try. https://www.lead4pass.com/70-774.html dumps pdf training resources. High quality Microsoft Certification 70-774 dumps pdf practice files and study guides, pass Microsoft 70-774 exam test easily at first […]

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Certification
Exam Name: Perform Cloud Data Science with Azure Machine Learning (beta)
Exam Code: 70-774
Total Questions: 102 Q&As
70-774 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the SNMP Service installed.
You perform an SNMP query against Server1 and discover that the query returns the incorrect identification information.
You need to change the identification information returned by Server1.
What should you do?
A. From the properties of the SNMP Service, modify the Agent settings.
B. From the properties of the SNMP Service, modify the General settings.
C. From the properties of the SNMP Trap Service, modify the Logon settings.
D. From the properties of the SNMP Trap Service, modify the General settings.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your company has an IPv6 network that has 25 segments. You deploy a server on the IPv6 network.
You need to ensure that the server can communicate with all segments on the IPv6 network. 70-774 dumps
What should you do?
A. Configure the IPv6 address as fd00::2b0:d0ff:fee9:4143/8.
B. Configure the IPv6 address as fe80::2b0:d0ff:fee9:4143/64.
C. Configure the IPv6 address as ff80::2b0:d0ff:fee9:4143/64.
D. Configure the IPv6 address as 0000::2b0:d0ff:fee9:4143/64.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your network contains a server that has the SNMP Service installed. You need to configure the SNMP security settings on the server.
Which tool should you use?
A. Local Security Policy
B. Scw
C. Secedit
D. Services console
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. You plan to create a custom script.
You need to ensure that each time the script runs, an entry is added to the Application event log.
Which tool should you use?
A. Eventcreate
B. Eventvwr
C. Wecutil
D. Wevtutil
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Your company is designing its network. The network will use an IPv6 prefix of 2001:DB8:BBCC:0000::/53.
You need to identify an IPv6 addressing scheme that will support 2000 subnets.
Which network mask should you use?
A. /61
B. /62
C. /63
D. /64
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Your network contains 100 servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2.
A server named Server1 is deployed on the network. Server1 will be used to collect events from the Security event logs of the other servers on the network. 70-774 dumps
You need to define the Custom Event Delivery Optimization settings on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. Event Viewer
B. Task Scheduler
C. Wecutil
D. Wevtutil
Correct Answer: C
70-774 dumps
QUESTION 7
You need to capture the HTTP traffic to and from a server every day between 09:00 and 10:00.
What should you do?
A. Create a scheduled task that runs the Netsh tool.
B. Create a scheduled task that runs the Nmcap tool.
C. From Network Monitor, configure the General options.
D. From Network Monitor, configure the Capture options.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the Routing and Remote Access service (RRAS) role service installed. You need to view all inbound VPN packets. The solution must minimize the amount of data collected.
What should you do?
A. From RRAS, create an inbound packet filter.
B. From Network Monitor, create a capture filter.
C. From the Registry Editor, configure file tracing for RRAS.
D. At the command prompt, run netsh.exe ras set tracing rasauth enabled.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2008 R2. A DHCP server is deployed on the network and configured to provide IPv6 prefixes. You need to ensure that when you monitor network traffic, you see the interface identifiers derived from the Extended Unique Identifier (EUI)-64 address.
Which command should you run?
A. netsh.exe interface ipv6 set global addressmaskreply=disabled
B. netsh.exe interface ipv6 set global dhcpmediasense=enabled
C. netsh.exe interface ipv6 set global randomizeidentifiers=disabled
D. netsh.exe interface ipv6 set privacy state=enabled
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Your company uses DHCP to lease IPv4 addresses to computers at the main office. A WAN link connects the main office to a branch office. 70-774 dumps All computers in the branch office are configured with static IP addresses. The branch office does not use DHCP and uses a different subnet. You need to ensure that the portable computers can connect to network resources at the main office and the branch office.
How should you configure each portable computer?
A. Use a static IPv4 address in the range used at the branch office.
B. Use an alternate configuration that contains a static IP address in the range used at the main office.
C. Use the address that was assigned by the DHCP server as a static IP address.
D. Use an alternate configuration that contains a static IP address in the range used at the branch office.
Correct Answer: D

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[Best CompTIA Real Dumps] CompTIA SY0-401 Dumps Latest PDF Questions And Answers, High Quality SY0-401 Dumps Youtube http://www.roboleague.bg?page=comptia-sy0-401-dumps-latest-pdf/ Fri, 01 Sep 2017 08:53:48 +0000 http://www.roboleague.bg?page=?p=149 2017 Latest CompTIA Security+ SY0-401 dumps exam questions and answers, the best CompTIA Security+ SY0-401 dumps vce youtube free demo. Get the best CompTIA Security+ SY0-401 dumps and vce training resources from lead4pass. https://www.lead4pass.com/SY0-401.html dumps pdf practice files free update. High quality CompTIA Security+ SY0-401 dumps pdf training materials and study guide, pass CompTIA SY0-401 exam […]

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: Security+
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam
Exam Code: SY0-401
Total Questions: 1776 Q&As
SY0-401 dumps
QUESTION 1
A security administrator wishes to increase the security of the wireless network. Which of the following BEST addresses this concern?
A. Change the encryption from TKIP-based to CCMP-based.
B. Set all nearby access points to operate on the same channel.
C. Configure the access point to use WEP instead of WPA2.
D. Enable all access points to broadcast their SSIDs.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A security administrator must implement a wireless security system, which will require users to enter a 30 character ASCII password on their accounts. SY0-401 dumps Additionally the system must support 3DS wireless encryption.
Which of the following should be implemented?
A. WPA2-CCMP with 802.1X
B. WPA2-PSK
C. WPA2-CCMP
D. WPA2-Enterprise
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Matt, the IT Manager, wants to create a new network available to virtual servers on the same hypervisor, and does not want this network to be routable to the firewall. How could this BEST be accomplished?
A. Create a VLAN without a default gateway.
B. Remove the network from the routing table.
C. Create a virtual switch.
D. Commission a stand-alone switch.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A security administrator is segregating all web-facing server traffic from the internal network and restricting it to a single interface on a firewall. Which of the following BEST describes this new network?
A. VLAN
B. Subnet
C. VPN
D. DMZ
Correct Answer: D
SY0-401 dumps
QUESTION 5
Which of the following should be deployed to prevent the transmission of malicious traffic between virtual machines hosted on a singular physical device on a network?
A. HIPS on each virtual machine
B. NIPS on the network
C. NIDS on the network
D. HIDS on each virtual machine
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A security team has identified that the wireless signal is broadcasting into the parking lot.
To reduce the risk of an attack against the wireless network from the parking lot, which of the following controls should be used? SY0-401 pdf (Select TWO).
A. Antenna placement
B. Interference
C. Use WEP
D. Single Sign on
E. Disable the SSID
F. Power levels
Correct Answer: A,F

QUESTION 7
When performing the daily review of the system vulnerability scans of the network Joe, the administrator, noticed several security related vulnerabilities with an assigned vulnerability identification number. Joe researches the assigned vulnerability identification number from the vendor website. Joe proceeds with applying the recommended solution for identified vulnerability.
Which of the following is the type of vulnerability described?
A. Network based
B. IDS
C. Signature based
D. Host based
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An administrator wants to establish a WiFi network using a high gain directional antenna with a narrow radiation pattern to connect two buildings separated by a very long distance.
Which of the following antennas would be BEST for this situation?
A. Dipole
B. Yagi
C. Sector
D. Omni
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
An administrator would like to review the effectiveness of existing security in the enterprise. SY0-401 dumps Which of the following would be the BEST place to start?
A. Review past security incidents and their resolution
B. Rewrite the existing security policy
C. Implement an intrusion prevention system
D. Install honey pot systems
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following BEST describes the weakness in WEP encryption?
A. The initialization vector of WEP uses a crack-able RC4 encryption algorithm. Once enough packets are captured an XOR operation can be performed and the asymmetric keys can be derived.
B. The WEP key is stored in plain text and split in portions across 224 packets of random data. Once enough packets are sniffed the IV portion of the packets can be removed leaving the plain text key.
C. The WEP key has a weak MD4 hashing algorithm used. A simple rainbow table can be used to generate key possibilities due to MD4 collisions.
D. The WEP key is stored with a very small pool of random numbers to make the cipher text. As the random numbers are often reused it becomes easy to derive the remaining WEP key.
Correct Answer: D

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[Best Cisco Real Dumps] 300-135 Dumps Latest Cisco PDF Practice Files And Youtube Free Demo http://www.roboleague.bg?page=300-135-dumps-latest-cisco/ Fri, 25 Aug 2017 03:35:57 +0000 http://www.roboleague.bg?page=?p=140 Download latest Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 dumps pdf training materials and study guides free demo. High quality Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 dumps exam questions and answers. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html dumps pdf practice files free update. Get the best Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 dumps pdf and vce questions and answers from lead4pass, pass […]

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QUESTION 1
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
Correct Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 2
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. 300-135 pdf After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What are two approaches to maintaining a network? 300-135 dumps (Choose two.)
A. PPDIOO
B. structured
C. bottoms up
D. interrupt-driven
Correct Answer: B,D
210-065 dumps
QUESTION 4
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead? 300-135 dumps
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Exhibit:
210-065 dumps
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
Correct Answer: D,F

QUESTION 8
Which two of the following options are categories of Network Maintenance tasks? 300-135 pdf
A. Firefighting
B. Interrupt-driven
C. Policy-based
D. Structured
E. Foundational
Correct Answer: B,D

QUESTION 9
You enabled CDP on two Cisco Routers which are connected to each other. The Line and Protocol status for the interfaces on both routers show as UP but the routers do not see each other a CDP neighbors. Which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Application
D. Data-Link
E. Network
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. 300-135 dumps A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

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[Best Cisco Real Dumps] Cisco 210-260 Dumps PDF Latest Questions And Answers Free Try Youtube http://www.roboleague.bg?page=latest-cisco-210-260-dumps/ Tue, 15 Aug 2017 07:03:42 +0000 http://www.roboleague.bg?page=?p=124 Get the best Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 dumps vce and pdf practice materials from lead4pass, pass Cisco 210-260 exam test easily at first attempt. https://www.lead4pass.com/210-260.html dumps pdf practice files. High quality Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 dumps pdf training materials and study guides free update. Latest Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 dumps exam questions and answers download free try. […]

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QUESTION 1
A technician enters the diag system normal command for a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint. Which action must be done in the CLI before entering this command?
A. Logging must be enabled.
B. Calling services must be stopped.
C. All forced upgrades must be cleared.
D. The Telephone_Srvr service must be restarted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
The microphone on a Cisco TelePresence System 3000 is switching incorrectly to a camera that does not have an active speaker. 210-260 pdf What is the first step that an engineer should take to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Check whether the microphone is properly plugged in.
B. Run the microphone calibration procedure.
C. Plug all microphones into the primary codec.
D. Check whether the cable from the microphone is plugged into the correct receptor on the codec.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which Cisco Video Surveillance device is responsible for providing video streams to monitors after the respective layouts and views are received by the monitors?
A. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Operations Manager
B. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix Viewer
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Manager
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
Correct Answer: D
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 4
A technician is trying to pair a Touch 8 with a Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint, but the codec is not automatically listed in the touch panel. 210-260 dumps What are two possible reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)
A. The codec firmware version is below version TC 6.1.
B. The codec and the Touch 8 are on separate subnets.
C. Pairing visibility mode is not active on the codec.
D. The codec is not compatible with a Touch 8 device.
E. The Touch 8 is connected via the second Ethernet port on the codec.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in the same network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?
A. Minimizing risk
B. Minimizing total cost of ownership
C. Minimizing liability
D. Maximizing compliance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two issues does utilizing an IP network storage solution for IP video surveillance help overcome? (Choose two.)
A. analog to IP conversion
B. large, expandable storage space
C. physical security
D. scalability
E. faster bit rate for storage
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
An engineer is deploying a Cisco Media Experience Engine 3500 to provide various capabilities for ingesting and processing video media and production capabilities. 210-260 pdf Which two advances does the Cisco MXE 3500 provide? (Choose two.)
A. automated graphical integration that can embed metadata overlays on videos during processing
B. over 2 terabytes of storage for both local and streaming media applications
C. automated ingesting of video files based on watch folders
D. clustering capability of up to 20 resource nodes to handle and balance incoming media requests and processing
E. live output abilities to provide DV, DVC Pro, DVC Pro 50, and DVC Pro HD format streams
F. ability to create VoD file outputs to WebEx ARF format
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
What is the proper procedure to manually reset a password on a Cisco TelePresence EX Series endpoint running software version TC7? 210-260 dumps
A. Use SSH to access the device and use the username “cisco” and the password “TANDBERG.”
B. Hold down the mute key on the touch display for 25 seconds and reset the password using the touch screen.
C. When the device is powered down, hold down the power button until the power light blinks twice, then press the power button twice.
D. Tap the power button four times within ten seconds and then use Telnet to connect to the device IP address.
E. Tap the power button five times while the device is powered off and when it boots, use Telnet to connect to the device within 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Due to disk space constraints, the cloud administrator for a cloud service provider wants to see how much storage a particular organization is using for snapshots.
Which report option in Cisco UCS Director provides that data?
A. Billing Report for a Customer
B. VM Activity Report by Group
C. Virtual Infrastructure and Asset Report
D. Storage Inventory Report for a Group
Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which option lists the orchestration types that can be selected when a user orders an application stack in Cisco Prime Service Catalog? 210-255 pdf
A. full, partial, none
B. automatic, semi-automatic, limited, none
C. standard service, VIX deployment, puppet, none
D. standard service, special service, automatic service
Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Cisco TMS is unable to manage endpoints and an engineer is required to capture logs to determine the cause.
What is the menu path that the engineer should follow to capture and download logs from Cisco TMS?
A. Administrative Tools > Diagnostics > TMS Tickets
B. Administrative Tools > TMS Server Maintenance > Download Diagnostic Files
C. Systems > Navigator > Diagnostics > Download Diagnostic Files
D. Systems > Navigator > TMS Logs
Answer: B
210-255 dumps
QUESTION 4           210-255 dumps
The firmware for the primary codec of a Cisco TelePresence System 3010 is being upgraded. Which codec CLI command could be used to check on the progress of the update?
A. utils upgrade display
B. utils system version
C. show upgrade detail
D. show system upgrade
Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A technician has installed and powered on a Cisco TelePresence MCU 5320 and is connected via the console port. The technician needs to determine the IP settings that were automatically assigned via DHCP.
Which command should be entered?
A. xstatus
B. show network eth0
C. status
D. help static
Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Management would like to set up a permanent recurring Cisco TelePresence meeting where the team would dial into to a preconfigured number. 210-255 pdf
Which meeting type should be used?
A. scheduled conference
B. ad hoc conference
C. rendezvous conference
D. multiway conference
Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which objects are exposed when integrating with Cisco UCS Director?
A. catalogs
B. tasks
C. public clouds
D. hybrid clouds
Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which option describes what end user portal access allows?
A. ordering of server and / or application environments based on preconfigured resources available to users access
B. deployment of templates and OVA files
C. sharing files with other portal users
D. registering Physical Compute resources to the environment
Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Management wants to modify Cisco TMS to allow users to configure the call behavior with their associated devices and dial from a single ID.
Which feature needs to be enabled and configured?
A. Smart Scheduler
B. Low-touch Provisioning
C. FindMe
D. CMR Provisioning
Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Where are the main fault logs for root cause analysis located?
A. on your local computer via an SSH session
B. on the server where the application is installed
C. on the database server
D. on the switch that connects the database and application server
Answer: B

QUESTION 11
An administrator wants to customize the alert thresholds in Cisco 210-255 dumps Prime Infrastructure.
Which section under system settings is used to perform this customization?
A. PI Alarms and Events
B. Configuration
C. PI Event Configuration
D. SNMP Configuration
Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A Cisco UCS Director user placed a service request with a workflow.
Under which condition must the user wait for approval?
A. if the workflow is published in the Cisco Prime Service Catalog
B. if the workflow requires approval
C. if there is domain separation
D. if the service request is not standard
Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a feature that improves the performance of software applications that run on the Cisco UCS servers in a data center by bypassing the kernel when sending and receiving networking packets?
A. A, vPath
B. VM-FEX
C. usNIC
D. VMware PassThrough
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD
210-250 dumps
QUESTION 4          210-250 dumps
Which two descriptions of VXLAN are true? (Choose two.)
A. The VXLAN Identifier space is 24 bits.
B. VXLAN uses the Internet Protocol as the transport medium.
C. VXLAN adds 24 bytes of overhead to each packet.
D. VXLAN is primarily designed for small environments.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity characteristics?
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A cloud administrator has deployed Cisco Prime Service Catalog. 210-250 dumps After deployment, which tool is used to build application models which are then deployed into Cisco Prime Service Catalog for consumption?
A. Heat Orchestration
B. Stack Designer
C. End-User Storefront
D. Administrative Portal
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which two features are available in the Cisco UCS Director chargeback module? (Choose two.)
A. Reusable Cost Models
B. Top 10 Reports
C. Dashboard
D. Quotas and Limits
E. Universal Compatibility
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 11
Which option is an open and extensible southbound protocol that supplies policy directly to data center networks?
A. OpFlex
B. vPath
C. VM-FEX
D. OpenDaylight
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following best describes the order of 210-250 dumps operations of FCoE Initialization Protocol?
A. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery, FC Command
B. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
C. FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
D. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
An organization with a centralized dial plan has user extensions as the last four digits of the external DID number. Some users at the head office have overlapping extensions with the users at the branch offices. 300-070 pdf
Which action fixes this issue without changing user extensions and allowing users to call each other across sites?
A. Use site codes.
B. Use different CSSs for both sites.
C. Place both extensions in different partitions.
D. Change the number of digits in the internal extensions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What are two characteristics that are associated with the End User and User account types? (Choose two.)
A. They cannot use LDAP.
B. They are used to authorize applications.
C. They can utilize LDAP.
D. The Application is associated with the End User and User account types.
E. They can be listed in a directory.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which option is the most highly recommended option to install Cisco TelePresence Conductor on the virtual machine? 300-070 dumps
A. Thick Provision Eager Zeroed
B. Thick Provision Lazy Zeroed
C. Thick Provision
D. Thin Provision
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which mechanism is often configured on the edges of a network to control the maximum rate of traffic that is sent or received on an interface and to classify the traffic into priority levels or class of service?
A. routing
B. shaping
C. policing
D. access control
E. traffic regulation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What function does the device pool perform? 300-070 pdf
A. It separates user and physical location information.
B. It sets the default device parameters for all IP phones in the cluster.
C. It sets the location bandwidth used between different locations.
D. It provides a single point of configuration for every device in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Managers have asked to be able to have an extension call them back if it is busy when they try to call it. In what two places can this feature be assigned to the Managers phone? (Choose two.)
A. Device Settings > Softkey Template
B. Device Settings > Default Device Profile Configuration
C. Device Settings > Phone Button Template
D. Device Settings > Device Profile
E. Device Settings > Device Defaults
F. Device Settings > Firmware Load Information
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
Which two types of encoding are available to configure a T1 controller for CAS? (Choose two.)
A. B8SF
B. AMI
C. B8ZS
D. SF
E. AME
F. ESF
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which three options are components of Media Resources Architecture? (Choose three)
A. Music on hold.
B. Media Resource Manager.
C. Media Resource Group.
D. Route list.
E. Route group
F. Media Resource Group List.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 9
Which tool can you use to verify and troubleshoot a dial plan? 300-070 dumps
A. Audit Log Configuration
B. Dialed Number Analyzer
C. CDR Analysis and Reporting
D. Troubleshooting Trace Settings
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which three CLI commands allow you to verify the correct VoIP dial-peer matching? (Choose three.)
A. debug ccsip messages
B. debug voip ccapi inout
C. debug dialpeer match
D. debug voip dialpeer inout
E. show dialplan number
Correct Answer: BDE

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QUESTION 1
A network engineer is asked to configure NetFlow to sample one of every 100 packets on a router’s fa0/0 interface. Which configuration enables sampling, assuming that NetFlow is already configured and running on the router’s fa0/0 interface?
A. flow-sampler-map flow1mode random one-out-of 100 interface fas0/0 flow-sampler flow1
B. flow monitor flow1mode random one-out-of 100 interface fas0/0 ip flow monitor flow1
C. flow-sampler-map flow1one-out-of 100 interface fas0/0 flow-sampler flow1
D. ip flow-export source fas0/0 one-out-of 100
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You are the administrator of a multicontext transparent-mode Cisco ASA that uses a shared interface that belongs to more than one context. 300-206 pdf Because the same interface will be used within all three contexts, which statement describes how you will ensure that return traffic will reach the correct context?
A. Interfaces may not be shared between contexts in routed mode.
B. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the no mac-address auto command.
C. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the mac-address auto command.
D. Use static routes on the Cisco ASA to ensure that traffic reaches the correct context.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which action is considered a best practice for the Cisco ASA firewall?
A. Use threat detection to determine attacks
B. Disable the enable password
C. Disable console logging
D. Enable ICMP permit to monitor the Cisco ASA interfaces
E. Enable logging debug-trace to send debugs to the syslog server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
300-206 dumps
According to the logging configuration on the Cisco ASA, what will happen if syslog server 10.10.2.40 fails? 300-206 dumps
A. New connections through the ASA will be blocked and debug system logs will be sent to the internal buffer.
B. New connections through the ASA will be blocked and informational system logs will be sent to the internalbuffer.C. New connections through the ASA will be blocked and system logs will be sent to server 10.10.2.41.
D. New connections through the ASA will be allowed and system logs will be sent to server 10.10.2.41.
E. New connections through the ASA will be allowed and informational system logs will be sent to the internalbuffer.
F. New connections through the ASA will be allowed and debug system logs will be sent to the internal buffer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which command configures the SNMP server group1 to enable authentication for members of the access list east?
A. snmp-server group group1 v3 auth access east
B. snmp-server group1 v3 auth access east
C. snmp-server group group1 v3 east
D. snmp-server group1 v3 east access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which two statements about Cisco IOS Firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. It provides stateful packet inspection.
B. It provides faster processing of packets than Cisco ASA devices provide.
C. It provides protocol-conformance checks against traffic.
D. It eliminates the need to secure routers and switches throughout the network.
E. It eliminates the need to secure host machines throughout the network.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following parameters:
-The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on networkdevices.
-The user needs read-write access to policies.
-The account has no more rights than necessary for the job.
What role will be assigned to the user? 300-206 pdf
A. Administrator
B. Security administrator
C. System administrator
D. Root Administrator
E. Exec administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which two options are purposes of the packet-tracer command? (Choose two.)
A. to filter and monitor ingress traffic to a switch
B. to configure an interface-specific packet trace
C. to simulate network traffic through a data path
D. to debug packet drops in a production network
E. to automatically correct an ACL entry in an ASA
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9
For which purpose is the Cisco ASA CLI command aaa authentication match used?
A. Enable authentication for SSH and Telnet connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
B. Enable authentication for console connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
C. Enable authentication for connections through the Cisco ASA appliance.
D. Enable authentication for IPsec VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
E. Enable authentication for SSL VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
F. Enable authentication for Cisco ASDM connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco product provides a GUI-based device management tool to configure Cisco access routers?
A. Cisco ASDM
B. Cisco CP Express
C. Cisco ASA 5500
D. Cisco CP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A Cisco ASA is configured for TLS proxy. When should the security appliance force remote IP phones connecting to the phone proxy through the internet to be in secured mode?
A. When the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is in non-secure mode
B. When the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is in secure mode only
C. When the Cisco Unified Communications Manager is not part of a cluster
D. When the Cisco ASA is configured for IPSec VPN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which statement about Cisco ASA multicast routing support is true? 300-206 dumps
A. The Cisco ASA appliance supports PIM dense mode, sparse mode, and BIDIR-PIM.
B. The Cisco ASA appliance supports only stub multicast routing by forwarding IGMP messages from multicastreceivers to the upstream multicast router.
C. The Cisco ASA appliance supports DVMRP and PIM.
D. The Cisco ASA appliance supports either stub multicast routing or PIM, but both cannot be enabled at thesame time.
E. The Cisco ASA appliance supports only IGMP v1.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A customer wants to know the options that are available when using all Cisco TelePresence SX Series endpoints in a multisite conference that is hosted locally. What are three capabilities of the Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint during a native multisite call? (Choose three.)
A. ability to change the local layout to prominent mode
B. ability to change the layout of remote participants to prominent mode
C. ability to change the Self-View status of remote participants
D. ability to control the camera of remote participants
E. ability to change the contact status of remote participants
F. ability to change the layout of remote participants to multisite mode
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
What is the proper procedure to manually reset a password on a Cisco TelePresence EX Series endpoint running software version TC7?
A. Use SSH to access the device and use the username “cisco” and the password “TANDBERG.”
B. Hold down the mute key on the touch display for 25 seconds and reset the password using the touch screen.
C. When the device is powered down, hold down the power button until the power light blinks twice, then press the power button twice.
D. Tap the power button four times within ten seconds and then use Telnet to connect to the device IP address.
E. Tap the power button five times while the device is powered off and when it boots, use Telnet to connect to the device within 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A technician is trying to pair a Touch 8 with a Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint, but the codec is not automatically listed in the touch panel. 210-065 dumps What are two possible reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)
A. The codec firmware version is below version TC 6.1.
B. The codec and the Touch 8 are on separate subnets.
C. Pairing visibility mode is not active on the codec.
D. The codec is not compatible with a Touch 8 device.
E. The Touch 8 is connected via the second Ethernet port on the codec.
Correct Answer: BC
210-065 dumps
QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Video Surveillance device is responsible for providing video streams to monitors after therespective layouts and views are received by the monitors?
A. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Operations Manager
B. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix Viewer
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Manager
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
The microphone on a Cisco TelePresence System 3000 is switching incorrectly to a camera that does not have an active speaker. What is the first step that an engineer should take to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Check whether the microphone is properly plugged in.
B. Run the microphone calibration procedure.
C. Plug all microphones into the primary codec.
D. Check whether the cable from the microphone is plugged into the correct receptor on the codec.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A Cisco TelePresence VCS displays this alarm: “Root password is set to default.” How can this security warning be addressed? 210-065 pdf
A. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > User Settings, and change the root password.
B. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Administrator and issue the command xconfig root set passwd.
C. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command set password, and enter the new password when prompted.
D. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command passwd, and enter the new password when prompted.
E. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > System Settings, and change the root password.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which three standards are supported for streaming live video on Cisco TCS? (Choose three.)
A. H.265
B. H.261
C. H.264
D. H.263
E. H.262
F. H.270
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 8
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in the same network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two issues does utilizing an IP network storage solution for IP video surveillance help overcome? (Choose two.) 210-065 dumps
A. analog to IP conversion
B. large, expandable storage space
C. physical security
D. scalability
E. faster bit rate for storage
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
An engineer is deploying a Cisco Media Experience Engine 3500 to provide various capabilities for ingesting and processing video media and production capabilities. 210-065 pdf Which two advances does the Cisco MXE 3500 provide? (Choose two.)
A. automated graphical integration that can embed metadata overlays on videos during processing
B. over 2 terabytes of storage for both local and streaming media applications
C. automated ingesting of video files based on watch folders
D. clustering capability of up to 20 resource nodes to handle and balance incoming media requests and processing
E. live output abilities to provide DV, DVC Pro, DVC Pro 50, and DVC Pro HD format streams
F. ability to create VoD file outputs to WebEx ARF format
Correct Answer: AC

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QUESTION 1
Which two options are disadvantages of MPLS layers 3 VPN services? (choose two)
A. They requires cooperation with the service provider to implement transport of non-IP traffic.
B. SLAs are not supported by the service provider.
C. It requires customers to implement QoS to manage congestion in the network.
D. Integration between Layers 2 and 3 peering services is not supported.
E. They may be limited by the technology offered by the service provider.
F. They can transport only IPv6 routing traffic.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about the DES algorithm are true? (Choose two)
A. The DES algorithm is based on asymmetric cryptography.
B. The DES algorithm is a stream cipher.
C. The DES algorithm is based on symmetric cryptography.
D. The DES algorithm encrypts a block of 128 bits.
E. The DES algorithm uses a 56-bit key.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
Which two statement about PVLAN port types are true? (Choose two) 400-251 pdf
A. A community port can send traffic to community port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
B. An isolated port can send and receive traffic only to and from promiscuous ports.
C. An isolated port can receive traffic from promiscuous port in an community on its broadcast domain, but can send traffic only to port in its own community.
D. A promiscuous port can send traffic promiscuous port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
E. A community port can send traffic to promiscuous port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
F. A Promiscuous port can send traffic to all ports within a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BF
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 4                       400-251 dumps
What is the name of the unique tool/feature in cisco security manager that is used to merge an access list based on the source/destination IP address service or combination of these to provide a manageable view of access policies?
A. merge rule tool
B. policy simplification tool
C. rule grouping tool
D. object group tool
E. combine rule tool
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which two characteristics of DTLS are true?(Choose two )
A. It is used mostly by applications that use application layer object-protocols B. It includes a congestion control mechanism
B. It completes key negotiation and bulk data transfer over a single channel.
C. It supports long data transfers and connectionless data transfers.
D. It cannot be used if NAT exists along the path.
E. It concludes a retransmission method because it uses an unreliable datagram transport
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Which three statements about RLDP are true? (Choose three)
A. It can detect rogue Aps that use WPA encryption
B. It detects rogue access points that are connected to the wired network
C. The AP is unable to serve clients while the RLDP process is active
D. It can detect rogue APs operating only on 5 GHz
E. Active Rogue Containment can be initiated manually against rogue devices detected on the wired network
F. It can detect rogue APs that use WEP encryption
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 7
Which of these is a core function of the risk assessment process? (Choose one.) 400-251 dumps
A. performing regular network upgrades
B. performing network optimization
C. performing network posture validation
D. establishing network baselines
E. prioritizing network roll-outs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two options are unicast address types for IPv6 addressing?(Choose two)
A. Link-local.
B. Established.
C. Global
D. Dynamic
E. Static
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
What security element must an organization have in place before it can implement a security audit and validate the audit results? 400-251 pdf
A. firewall
B. network access control
C. an incident response team
D. a security policy
E. a security operation center
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Within Platform as a Service, which two components are managed by the customer?(Choose two)
A. Data.
B. Networking.
C. Middleware.
D. Applications.
E. Operating system
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11
From the list below, which one is the major benefit of AMP Threat GRID?
A. AMP Threat Grid collects file information from customer servers and run tests on them to see if they are infected with viruses
B. AMP Threat Grid learns ONLY from data you pass on your network and not from anything else to monitor for suspicious behavior. This makes the system much faster and efficient
C. AMP Threat Grid combines Static, and Dynamic Malware analysis with threat intelligence into one combined solution
D. AMP Threat Grid analyzes suspicious behavior in your network against exactly 400 behavioral indicators
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about the ISO are true? (Choose two) 400-251 dumps
A. The ISO is a government-based organization.
B. The ISO has three membership categories: member, correspondent, and subscribers.
C. Only member bodies have voting rights.
D. Correspondent bodies are small countries with their own standards organization.
E. Subscriber members are individual organizations.
Correct Answer: BC

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