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300-160 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two statements about Fibre Channel over IP are true? (Choose two.)
A. FCIP links consist of a maximum of one TCP connection between two FCIP link endpoints.
B. Each FCIP link carries encapsulated FCoE frames.
C. The FCIP link is established between two peers, and the VE Port initialization behavior is identical to a normal E Port.
D. The FCIP profile contains information about the local IP address and TCP parameters.
E. The local IP address of the FCIP profile is the IP address of the management interface of the Cisco MDS switch.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
Which option describes the default predictor on ACE to select the best server to fulfill a client request?
A. the hash cookie, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on a cookie name
B. least bandwidth, which selects the server that processed the least amount of network traffic
C. round robin, which selects the next server in the list of real servers
D. the hash DNS, which selects the server using a hash value that is based on FQDN
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
The Cisco Nexus 1000v Series switches can configure traditional SPAN sessions. Which three statements about the local SPAN source ports are true? (Choose three.)
A. It can be configured to monitor the direction of the traffic.
B. It must be in the same VSAN.
C. It can be port type Ethernet, virtual Ethernet, or port channel.
D. It must be in the same VLAN.
E. It cannot be on a different host VEM as the destination port.
F. It cannot be a port profile.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 4
Which statements are true regarding the Cisco UCS fabric failover feature? 300-160 dumps (Choose three.)
A. FabricSync is used to synchronize MAC addresses to an adjacent fabric interconnect after a server interface failover.
B. Gratuitous ARPs are sent on fabric interconnect uplinks after a server interface failover.
C. Fabric failover can be used on vNICs and vHBAs.
D. Fabric failover is configured as part of the service profile.
E. Fabric interconnects in end-host mode use fabric failover instead of spanning tree to provide redundancy on uplink ports.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 5
What is the main function of the device-alias distribute command?
A. This command distributes the device alias configuration on the existing switch to all the other switches in the Cisco Fabric Services region.
B. This command enables distribution and will send the configuration after a commit is executed.
C. This command changes the distribution mode for device aliases.
D. There is no such command.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You plan to add a new VLAN to your updating service profile template. Assuming that the default maintenance policy is configured, which statement about applying this change is true?
A. The change will be applied immediately once the blade is rebooted.
B. The change will be deferred until the user acknowledges.
C. The change will be applied immediately with no disruption to any bound service profiles.
D. The change will generate an impact summary message.
E. The change will require all bound service profiles to be unbound.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What is the default FSPF cost of a port channel that consists of four 2-Gb/s links, with one link down because of an error?
A. 500
B. 166
C. 250
D. 125
E. 100
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
KAL-AP on the Cisco ACE allows communication with Cisco ACE Global Site Selector, to report virtual IP and real server availability. Which statement is true about KAL-AP?
A. It is a Cisco propriety keepalive.
B. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP entries.
C. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP keepalives.
D. It is used for both Cisco and non-cisco load balancers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which option describes how you would guarantee 30 percent of available bandwidth on interface 1/4?
A. Issue the bandwidth percent 30 command after the interface ethernet1/4 command.
B. Issue the bandwidth percent 30 command after the class best-effort-drop-class command.
C. Issue the bandwidth percentage 30 command after the policy-map policy1-egress command.
D. Issue the bandwidth percentage 30 command after the class best-effort-drop-class command.
E. Bandwidth guarantees are not permitted on output policies.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
ACE can check the health of servers and server farms by configuring health probes (sometimes referred to as keepalives). There are several types of probes.
Which three options are valid ACE probes? (Choose three.)
A. TCP
B. ICMP
C. HTTP
D. IPsec
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 11
Which statement about NPV on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches is true? 300-160 dumps
A. By default, Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches operate in NPV mode. In this mode, the switch providesstandard Fibre Channel switching.
B. In NPV mode, each switch that joins a SAN is assigned a domain ID. Each SAN (or VSAN) supports amaximum of 239 domain IDs, so the SAN has a limit of 239 switches.
C. In NPV mode, the edge switch relays all traffic from server-side sports to the core switch. The core switchprovides TE Port functionality to the downstream NPV switch.
D. In NPV mode, the edge switch appears as a Fibre Channel host to the core switch and as a regular FibreChannel switch to its connected devices.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
The OTV overlay interface is a logical multiaccess and multicast-capable interface that must be explicitly defined by the user, and is the location where the entire OTV configuration is applied. Which two statements about the OTV overlay interface are true? (Choose two.)
A. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame that is destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the overlay interface.
B. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the join interface toward the routed domain.
C. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame that is destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the join interface.
D. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the overlay interface toward the routed domain.
E. The OTV edge device performs the static OTV encapsulation on the Layer 3 packet and sends it to the join interface toward the switching domain.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series implementation has two main components. Which two components together make up the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch? (Choose two.)
A. virtual supervisor module
B. virtual Ethernet module
C. virtual machine NICs
D. virtual machine kernel NICs
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Which three statements about the configuration of vPC+ are true? (Choose three.)
A. The FabricPath switch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.
B. The virtual switch ID of vPC+ must be configured under the FabricPath domain.
C. On the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch, F1 interfaces must be used as the vPC+ peer links.
D. The vPC+ peer link must be configured as a Cisco FabricPath core port.
E. The FabricPath subswitch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.
F. There has to be atleast 4 virtual switches in the FabricPath domain.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 15
What does the mac packet-classify command do when applied to an interface configuration?
A. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only IP packets that enter the interface.
B. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only non-IP packets that enter the interface.
C. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to all packets that enter the interface.
D. It enables MAC ACLs to be used for QoS settings.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Cisco UCS provides integration interfaces and protocols to support heterogeneous data center environments and supports standard monitoring and eventnotification systems, providing data to standard enterprise-management tools. 300-160 dumps
Which two of these lists the primary Cisco UCS interfaces and industry standard-based read-only interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. UCS Manager XML API and UCS CLI
B. SNMP, SMASH CLP, and CIM-XML
C. UCS Manager, DCOS, and Local-mgmt
D. SoL and NX-OS
E. debug-plugin and UCS Manager GUI
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
When testing ICMP access to a functional load-balancing ACE VIP, it fails. What is the reason of this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The interface is shut down
B. An access list is denying ICMP
C. Routing is not configured properly
D. vip icmp-reply is inactive
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
On a Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS), which two statements regarding Ethanalyzer are true? (Choose two.)
A. Interface inbound-low handles Rx and Tx of low-priority control packet
B. Interface inbound-lo handles Rx and Tx of high-priority control packet
C. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth3
D. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth4
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
Which two statements about enhanced zoning are true? (Choose two.)
A. Enhanced zoning is a mode that shows much more detail for the SAN choices when it is viewed in Fabric Manager.
B. Enhanced zoning cannot be enabled per VSAN. It is a chassis-wide setting.
C. Enhanced zoning sets the default zone to the same state in all switches.
D. Enhanced zoning cannot be enabled in an FCoE environment.
E. Enhanced zoning sends ACA to lock the fabric when the administrator starts a zone change.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 20
In a FabricPath topology, each device is identified by a switch ID, and all Layer 2 forwarding tables are built based on the reachability of the switch ID. Which protocol is used to assign the switch ID?
A. No protocol is used. The switch ID is always assigned manually.
B. The Dynamic Resource Allocation Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.
C. The Switch ID Assignment Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.
D. The switch ID is assigned based on the system ID of the device.
Correct Answer: B

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[Best Cisco Real Dumps] Useful Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 Dumps Exam Questions And Youtube Demo Free Shared http://www.roboleague.bg?page=useful-cisco-ccna-wireless-200-355-dumps/ Tue, 26 Dec 2017 01:43:43 +0000 http://www.roboleague.bg?page=?p=235 The best and most updated useful Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 dumps exam training materials free download from lead4pass. Useful Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo update free shared. “Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals” is the name of Cisco CCNA Wireless https://www.lead4pass.com/200-355.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of […]

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200-355 dumps
QUESTION 1
A lightweight AP has been deployed in local mode in a network that consists of 10 wireless LAN controllers in a single mobility group. The AP has been configured to use primary, secondary, and tertiary Cisco WLCs. Due to a major power failure, all those Cisco WLCs are unavailable.
Which step does the AP take next?
A. The AP reboots and repeatedly attempts to join the configured primary, secondary, and tertiary Cisco WLCs in that order. The process continues until one of the configured Cisco WLCs is available.
B. The AP attempts to join a Cisco WLC configured as a master controller.
C. The AP attempts to join the Cisco WLC that has the greatest capacity available.
D. The AP state transitions to AP Fallback Mode and continues to provide limited WLAN services (that is, no new client authentications) until a Cisco WLC is available.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What must be done for Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS to communicate?
A. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WLC must be configured in the Cisco WCS.
B. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WCS must be configured in the Cisco WLC.
C. The identity certificate of the Cisco WLC must be added to the Cisco WCS.
D. The Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS must exchange identity certificates.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What three components must be the same on a controller and the RADIUS server when adding a RADIUS server to a WLC? 200-355 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Username
B. Shared Secret
C. Index Priority
D. Port Number
E. IP Address
F. Network Mask
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 4
What AnyConnect module can be used to provide a detailed scan list of the Wi-Fi environment?
A. DART
B. Telemetry
C. Web Security
D. NAM
E. Posture
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which statement best describes the ability of a wireless client to access and transmit a data frame to an AP?
A. The client listens to the media until polled by the AP using PCF to send its data.
B. The client listens to the media until a data frame is finished, at which time it transmits, unless a collision of data frames has occurred.
C. The client uses random countdown timers to start the transmission of a data frame.
D. The client listens to the media and countdown timers to start the transmission of a data frame.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
An access point is currently transmitting at 4 mW. The customer needs to increase its signal strength by 6 dB to create a larger wireless cell. What should the new transmit power be?
A. 8 mW
B. 10 mW
C. 12 mW
D. 16 mW
E. 24 mW
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A user is unable to access a lobby administration web page when using a wireless laptop; however, the user can access the page with a wired desktop computer. Which management feature needs to be enabled on the WLC to allow laptop access?
A. management via wireless
B. dynamic interface management
C. HTTP
D. HTTPS
E. TACACS
F. SSH
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A customer wants to deploy Cisco Cloud Wireless architecture with 802.11ac capabilities.
Which access points would meet the customers’ requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco 3700 Access Points
B. Cisco MR34 Access Points
C. Cisco MR18 Access Points
D. Cisco 3600 Access Points
E. Cisco MR72 Access Points
F. Cisco 1570 Access Points
G. Cisco MR26 Access Points
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
During the deployment of a wireless network for data and location services, an engineer is to fine-tune the location services. What is this type of survey called? 200-355 dumps
A. passive fingerprinting
B. passive calibrating
C. active fingerprinting
D. active calibrating
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
200-355 dumps
Select and Place:
200-355 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-355 dumps
QUESTION 11
Which two Cisco WLC management-access methods are available as the default setting? (Choose two.)
A. SSH
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
The administrator needs to create a report that shows all controllers, APs, and Cisco 3300 Series MSEs in the WLAN, including hardware and software information. Which report includes this information?
A. Device > Inventory
B. Mesh > Nodes
C. Network Summary > Executive Summary
D. Network Summary > 802.11 Summary
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two services require an RToWLAN design? (Choose two.)
A. wVoIP
B. video conferencing
C. multicast video
D. Telnet
E. SSH
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
A network engineer in the GUI of WCS version 7 wants to add an access point to a map. Where can this command be found within the drop-down menu?
A. Monitor andgt; Maps
B. Reports andgt; Maps
C. Monitor andgt; Network Summary
D. Configure andgt; Maps
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
What is the equivalent of 26 dBm in milliwatts? 200-355 dumps
A. 4 mW
B. 40 mW
C. 100 mW
D. 400 mW
E. 1000 mW
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
You are designing a wireless network in a medical facility. Which three areas are bad locations in which to install a wireless access point? (Choose three.)
A. in front of the elevators doors
B. in the hallways
C. next to the electrical room
D. inside offices
E. near medical imaging devices
F. in the lobby
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 17
An enterprise needs their iPhones to connect to the EAP-TLS network. How should the devices be configured?
A. push profile and certificate through Configuration Utility
B. configure directly through Settings application
C. email certificate to device then configure through Settings application
D. download certificate from web page then configure through Settings application
E. push profile and certificate through iTunes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which statement about ZigBee technology is true?
A. It has low power consumption.
B. It is designed only for point-to-point communications.
C. It ranges up to 250 meters.
D. It supports data rates up to 1 and 2 Mb/s.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
An AP using version 7.0 MR1 broadcasts a Layer 3 CAPWAP discovery message on the local IP subnet. Which step does the AP take next?
A. Determine if the controller responses include the primary controller.
B. Determine if the controller responses include the master controller.
C. Send a discovery request using DHCP option 43.
D. Send a discovery request using DNS.
E. Send a discovery request using locally stored information on the AP.
F. Send a discovery request using OTAP.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20
Which two features are available in the Cisco WCS Plus license over the base license? (Choose two.)
A. ad hoc rogue detection
B. high availability between two Cisco WCS stations
C. mobility service engine management
D. auto discovery and containment or notification of rogue APs
E. client location to the nearest AP
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 21
Which Cisco program for WLAN client vendors helps to ensure that their devices are interoperable with Cisco WLAN infrastructure?
A. CCX
B. CCMP
C. ASDM
D. WLSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
The network administrator wants an access point to be able to find rogue APs and to support location-based services. 200-355 dumps Which AP mode meets this requirement while having the radios up and preventing client connections?
A. monitor
B. sniffer
C. rogue-detection
D. H-REAP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
When the enterprise-based authentication method is used for WPA2, a bidirectional handshake exchange occurs between the client and the authenticator.
Which five options are results of that exchange being used on a controller-based network? (Choose five.)
A. a bidirectional exchange of a nonce used for key generation
B. binding of a Pairwise Master Key at the client and the controller
C. creation of the Pairwise Transient Key
D. distribution of the Group Transient Key
E. distribution of the Pairwise Master key for caching at the access point
F. proof that each side is alive
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,F

QUESTION 24
Which two statements about the requirements to configure inter-controller roaming are true? (Choose two.)
A. The same mobility domain names are configured across controllers.
B. The same RF group names are configured across controllers.
C. The same controller hardware version is configured across controllers.
D. The same AP manager interface is configured across controllers.
E. The same virtual interface is configured across controllers.
F. The same controller software version is configured across controllers.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 25
In a typical wireless network using WPA, WPA2 or VPN, why is it still possible for a rogue client to launch a DOS attack?
A. WPA and WPA2 are not considered strong encryption algorithms and are easily cracked.
B. 802.11 management frames are easily compromised.
C. Cisco Compatible Extensions v5 are required with WPA, WPA2, or VPN to keep rogues from launching attacks in the wireless network.
D. The message integrity check frames are never encrypted or authenticated, which allows rogues to spoof clients.
Correct Answer: B

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200-310 dumps
QUESTION 1
Why would an engineer implement variable length subnet masks?
A. To make a subnet public
B. To prevent wasting IP addresses
C. To make a subnet its own VLAN
D. To expand an existing subnet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
The red lines refer to STP blocked ports. What happens if the HSRP active moves to the right distribution, and the STP root remains on the left distribution?
A. The STP root becomes the gateway
B. The interdistribution link is used for transit
C. The HSRP standby becomes the gateway
D. The interaccess link is used for transit
E. Host traffic is unable to reach the HSRP active
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
In the traditional hierarchical LAN design,Which two statement about the distribution layer are true? (Choose two.)
A. It typically is connected directly to the internet It provides users direct access to the network
B. It uses Layer 2 switching only
C. It aggregates data from the access layer
D. Policy is implemented at this layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What three design requirements are key to design a Campus Core? 200-310 dumps
A. Low latency
B. Access control
C. Traffic filtering
D. High speed
E. Redundant links
F. QoS tagging
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 5
When designing the threat detection and mitigation portion for the enterprise data center network, which of the following would be the most appropriate solution to consider?
A. 802.1x
B. ACL in the Core layer
C. Cisco Security MARS
D. Cisco Firewall Services Module
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A network engineer has been asked to follow a top down design approach. Which layer of the OSI model is used to start the design?
A. Physical
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Application
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two design approaches provide management of Enterprise Network devices? (Choose two.)
A. In-band
B. Out-of-line
C. Out-of-band
D. In-line
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which two design decision can improve network resiliency? (you have to chose 2 answers)
A. Implement redundant link
B. Increase data plane bandwidth
C. Implement serial device connection
D. Reduce network size
E. Implement redundant topology
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified? 200-310 dumps
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What IPv4 addressing technique is used for proper address planning to reduce the number of entries in a routing table?
A. Filtering
B. Tunneling
C. Summarization
D. Translation
E. Supernetting
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
If two routing protocols have the same route and prefix, which effect do thery have on the routing table?
A. Only the route with the lowest administrative distance is added
B. Only the route with the highest administrative distance is added
C. Both routes are added
D. Neither route is added, and a loop is formed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which three are associated with the distribution layer within the campus design? (Choose three.)
A. Access layer aggregation
B. Route summarization
C. Network trust boundary
D. Next-hop redundancy
E. Layer-2 switching
F. Port security
G. Broadcast suppression
Correct Answer: ABD

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration
Exam Name: Administering and Deploying System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Exam Code: 070-243
Total Questions: 112 Q&As
070-243 dumps
QUESTION 1
You recently migrated from System Center Configuration Manager 2007 to System Center 2012 Configuration Manager.
Your network contains a client computer that runs the 64-bit version of Windows 7 and the 32- bit version of Windows 7. Some client computers have the Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) client installed.
You have an Application named App1. You have a 64-bit version of App1, a 32-bit version of App1, and a virtual version of App1.
You need to deploy the Application to all of the client computers. The solution must minimize the amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Create a new Application that has three different deployment types and create a target collection for each of the deployment types.
B. Create a new Application that has three different deployment types and configure global conditions for each of the deployment types.
C. Create a new package for each version of App1.
D. Create a new Application for each version of App1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You have an Application named App1.
You need to ensure that users in the finance department can install App1 by using the Application Catalog.
What should you do?
A. Create a required user deployment and target the deployment to all of the finance department users.
B. Create a required user deployment and target the deployment to all of the client computers in the finance department.
C. Create an available user deployment and target the deployment to all of the finance department users.
D. Create an available user deployment and target the deployment to all of the client computers in the finance department.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Your company uses System Center 2012 Configuration Manager with Microsoft Forefront Endpoint Protection integration.
You deploy Forefront Endpoint Protection to all client computers.
The company uses a management Application named App1.
You discover that Forefront Endpoint Protection blocks App1.
You need to ensure that App1 can run.
How should you configure the Default Client Malware Policy? 070-243 dumps (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Create a software restriction policy.
B. Add a process exclusion.
C. Add a file location exclusion.
D. Modify the schedule scan settings.
E. Click the Use behavior monitoring check box.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You deploy a Microsoft Office 2007 package to all client computers by using Configuration Manager.
Your company purchases Office 2010.
You need to ensure that all users can install Office 2010 from the Application Catalog.
What should you do?
A. Deploy a new package for Office 2010.
B. Deploy Office 2010 by using a Group Policy Object (GPO).
C. Update the Office 2007 source file and redeploy the package.
D. Deploy a new Application for Office 2010.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You deploy Windows 7 by using Operating System Deployment (OSD). The development task sequence contains steps to install software updates and Applications.
The amount of time required to deploy the Windows 7 image has increased significantly during the last six months.
You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to deploy the image.
What should you recommend?
A. Synchronize software updates before deploying the image.
B. Use offline servicing for the image.
C. Create a new automatic deployment rule.
D. Add an additional Install Software Updates step to the deployment task sequence.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You have Windows 7 images that are rebuilt quarterly and sported to System Center 2012 Configuration Manager.
The Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) 2012 is integrated with Configuration Manager.
You need to reduce the network security risks when the images are deployed by using Operating System Deployment (OSD).
What should you do? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. After the Apply Operating System Image task sequence step, add a step to install software updates offline.
B. Before the Apply Operating System image task sequence step, add a step to install Deployment Imaging Servicing and Management (DISM).
C. After the installation of the final Application, add an Install Software Updates task sequence step.
D. After the Apply Operating System Image task sequence step, add a Run Command line step that runs wuaudt.exe /detectnow
E. Before the Apply Operating System image task sequence step, add a step to install the Windows Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK).
Correct Answer: AC
070-243 dumps
QUESTION 7
Your company uses System Center 2012 Configuration Manager to distribute operating system images.
The standard operating system for client computers is Windows 7 Enterprise (x86).
You receive 300 new desktop computers. Each computer has a new storage controller.
When you attempt to deploy an existing image to one of the computers, you receive an error message indicating that a storage device cannot be found during the pre-boot deployment phase. You need to ensure that you can deploy Windows 7 to the new computers by using an image.
What should you do?
A. Import the storage drivers to the Drivers container and update the task sequence.
B. Create a new x64 boot image and configure the operating system image to use the x64 boot image.
C. Create a new driver package and update the task sequence.
D. Update the existing x86 boot image to include the storage drivers.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You plan to create a build and capture a task sequence to build a reference image of Windows 7.
You need to identify which applications must exist in Configuration Manager before you can create the build and capture task sequence. 070-243 dumps
Which applications should you identify? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT)
B. Configuration Manager client
C. System Preparation tool (Sysprep)
D. User State Migration Tool (USMT)
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The Client Status node in the Configuration Manager console shows a downward trend in client health.
You verify the logs on several clients.
You discover that the clients are healthy and are communicating normally to management points.
You need to identify the reasons why the Configuration Manager console displays a downward trend in client health.
Which reasons should you identify? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. In Client Status Settings Properties, the Heartbeat discovery during the following days interval is shorter than the Heartbeat Discovery interval.
B. The age set in the Delete Aged Discovery Data maintenance task is shorter than the Heartbeat Discovery interval.
C. The Delete Obsolete Client Discovery Data maintenance task is disabled.
D. The Active Directory sites that are members of boundary groups are modified.
E. Microsoft SQL Server replication to the management points stopped.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The hierarchy contains a Central Administration at Site1 and a primary site named Site.
You discover that none of the packages created on Site1 are displayed in Site2.
You need to identify whether there is a replication issue between the sites.
What should you review?
A. the Inventoryagent.log file
B. the Rcmctrl.log file
C. the Microsoft SQL Server replication diagnostic files
D. the Despool.log file
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and litwareinc.com.
You implement System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in the contoso.com forest.
You deploy the Configuration Manager client to all of the client computers in contoso.com by using a logon script.
You need to ensure that the Configuration Manager client is automatically deployed to all of the client computers in the litwareinc.com forest.
What should you do? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Configure a Client Push Installation account.
B. Enable Client Push installation.
C. Enable Active Directory System Discovery.
D. Configure an administrative user.
E. Enable Active Directory Forest Discovery.
Correct Answer: ABCE

QUESTION 12
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The environment contains a single primary site.
You need to provide users with the ability to remotely reset their mobile device to the factory settings.
What should you install?
A. Application Catalog web service point and Application Catalog website point
B. Out of band service point and Application Catalog web service point
C. Device management point and System Health Validator point
D. System Health Validator point and Application Catalog website point
Correct Answer: A

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[Best Cisco Real Dumps] The Best And Most Cisco 300-115 Dumps Exam Materials And Youtube Demo Free Shared http://www.roboleague.bg?page=best-and-most-cisco-300-115-dumps/ Thu, 16 Nov 2017 02:32:51 +0000 http://www.roboleague.bg?page=?p=218 The best and most Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo free update. Get the latest Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps exam practice questions and answers free download from lead4pass. “Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks” is the name of Cisco CCDP https://www.lead4pass.com/300-115.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real […]

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Exam Code: 300-115
Total Questions: 456 Q&As
300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch is overloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. The destination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?
A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
300-115 dumps When a Layer 2 EtherChannel is configured, which statement about placement of the IP address is true?
A. The IP address is placed on the highest numbered member port.
B. The IP address is placed on the port-channel logical interface.
C. The IP address is placed on the lowest numbered member port.
D. The IP address is assigned via DHCP only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A network engineer is installing a switch for temporary workers to connect to. The engineer does not want this switch participating in Spanning Tree with the rest of the network; however, end user connectivity is still required. Which spanning-tree feature accomplishes this?
A. BPDUblock
B. BPDUfilter
C. BPDUignore
D. BPDUguard
E. BPDUdisable
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, local username, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
When you configure private VLANs on a switch, which port type connects the switch to the gateway router?
A. promiscuous
B. community
C. isolated
D. trunked
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
300-115 dumps Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast enabled and it receives BPDUs?
A. BPDU filtering
B. BackboneFast
C. EtherChannel
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which VRRP router is responsible for forwarding packets that are sent to the IP addresses of the virtual router?
A. virtual router master
B. virtual router backup
C. virtual router active
D. virtual router standby
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which option is a benefit of using VSS?
A. reduces cost
B. simplifies configuration
C. provides two independent supervisors with two different control planes
D. removes the need for a First Hop Redundancy Protocol
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to-MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two options are two results of using the command spanning-tree vlan 50 root primary within a spanning-tree network under global configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Spanning tree determines the priority of the current root for VLAN 50 and reduces the priority of the local switch to a lower value.
B. The priority value for VLAN 50 is set to 4094 on the root while the local switch priority is set to 32768.
C. The spanning-tree timers are reduced to improve the convergence time for VLAN 50.
D. All ports that are configured on the current switch with VLAN 50 transition to designated ports.
E. The switchport that is configured for VLAN 50 is the primary connection to the spanning-tree root switch.
Correct Answer: AD

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[Best Cisco Real Dumps] High Quality Lead4pass 100-105 Dumps Cisco Exam Practice Files And Youtube Update http://www.roboleague.bg?page=high-quality-lead4pass-100-105-dumps/ Fri, 10 Nov 2017 03:41:43 +0000 http://www.roboleague.bg?page=?p=210 High quality lead4pass 100-105 dumps Cisco ICND1 exam practice files and vce youtube demo. Get the best Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps pdf training resources and study guides free update from lead4pass. “Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)” is the name of Cisco ICND1 https://www.lead4pass.com/100-105.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points […]

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
lead4pass 100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?
A. shutdown
B. protect
C. shutdown vlan
D. restrict
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass 100-105 dumps
A user cannot reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department are not having a problem.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?A. IP routing is not enabled.
B. The default gateway is not in the same subnet.
C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.
D. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC.
E. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass 100-105 dumps
A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?
A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the routing table?
A. S
B. E
C. D
D. R
E. O
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
A. IEEE 802 1w
B. IEEE 802 1D
C. IEEE 802 1Q
D. IEEE 802 1p
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different subnets?
A. 172.20.1.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 192.168.0.119
D. 239.255.0.1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

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[Best Cisco Real Dumps] Latest Cisco 200-105 Dumps PDF Materials And VCE Youtube Update Free Try http://www.roboleague.bg?page=latest-cisco-200-105-dumps/ Tue, 07 Nov 2017 02:50:52 +0000 http://www.roboleague.bg?page=?p=201 Prepare for Cisco 200-105 exam with high quality Cisco ICND2 200-105 dumps training materials and study guides free try. Get the best Cisco ICND2 200-105 dumps pdf training resources and vce youtube update free demo. “Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)” is the name of Cisco ICND2 https://www.lead4pass.com/200-105.html exam dumps which covers all […]

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor? 200-105 dumps
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
200-105 dumps
200-105 dumps
What would be the destination Layer 2 address in the frame header for a frame that is being forwarded by Dubai to the host address of 172.30.4.4?
A. 825
B. 230
C. 694
D. 387
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three.)
A. Network, Application & User Monitoring
B. Network Planning
C. Security Analysis
D. Accounting/Billing
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 7
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? (Select three.)
A. Send an SNMP trap.
B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
200-105 dumps Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?
A. FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69
B. FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69
C. FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69
D. FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. Which of the following are required to solve this? (Choose three)
A. configure static frame relay map entries for each subinterface network.
B. remove the ip address from the physical interface
C. create the virtual interfaces with the interface command
D. configure each subinterface with its own IP address
E. disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks
F. encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP
Correct Answer: BCD

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[Best RedHat Real Dumps] New RedHat EX200 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers Update Youtube Demo http://www.roboleague.bg?page=new-redhat-ex200-dumps-exam/ Wed, 01 Nov 2017 08:20:31 +0000 http://www.roboleague.bg?page=?p=196 High quality RedHat RHCSA EX200 dumps exam questions and answers free download from lead4pass. Prepare for RedHat EX200 exam test with latest RedHat RHCSA EX200 dumps pdf files and dumps vce youtube demo. “Red Hat Certified System Administrator – RHCSA” is the name of RedHat https://www.lead4pass.com/EX200.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of […]

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Vendor: RedHat
Certifications: RHCSA
Exam Name: Red Hat Certified System Administrator – RHCSA
Exam Code: EX200
Total Questions: 24 Q&As
EX200 dumps
QUESTION 1
Download ftp://192.168.0.254/pub/boot.iso to /root, and mounted automatically under /media/cdrom and which take effect automatically at boot-start.
Correct Answer:
# cd /root; wget ftp://192.168.0.254/pub/boot.iso
# mkdir -p /media/cdrom
# vim /etc/fstab
/root/boot.iso /media/cdrom iso9660 defaults,loop 0 0
# mount -a
mount [-t vfstype] [-o options] device dir

QUESTION 2
Configure the verification mode of your host account and the password as LDAP. And it can ldapuser40. The password is set as “password”. And the certificate login successfully through can be downloaded from http://ip/dir/ldap.crt. After the user logs on , the user has no host directory unless you configure the autofs in the following questions.
Correct Answer:
system-config-authentication
LDAP Server: ldap//instructor.example.com (In domain form, not write IP)
OR
# yum groupinstall directory-client (1.krb5-workstation 2.pam-krb5 3.sssd)
# system-config-authentication
1.User Account Database: LDAP
2.LDAP Search Base DN: dc=example,dc=com
3.LDAP Server: ldap://instructor.example.com (In domain form, not write IP)
4.Download CA Certificate
5.Authentication Method: LDAP password
6.Apply
getent passwd ldapuser40

QUESTION 3
Create a volume group, and set 8M as a extends. Divided a volume group containing 50 extends on volume group lv (lvshare), make it as ext4 file system, EX200 dumps and mounted automatically under /mnt/data. And the size of the floating range should set between 380M and 400M.
Correct Answer:
# fdisk
# partprobe
# pvcreate /dev/vda6
# vgcreate -s 8M vg1 /dev/vda6 -s
# lvcreate -n lvshare -l 50 vg1 -l
# mkfs.ext4 /dev/vg1/lvshare
# mkdir -p /mnt/data
# vim /etc/fstab
/dev/vg1/lvshare /mnt/data ext4 defaults 0 0
# mount -a
# df -h

QUESTION 4
Create a 2G swap partition which take effect automatically at boot-start, and it should not affect the original swap partition.
Correct Answer:
# fdisk /dev/sda
(check Partition table)
(create new partition: press e to create extended partition, press p to create the main
partition, and theextended partition is further divided into logical partitions) Enter
# partx -a /dev/sda
# partprobe
# mkswap /dev/sda8
# Copy UUID
# swapon -a
# vim /etc/fstab
UUID=XXXX swap swap defaults 0 0
(swapon -s)

QUESTION 5
Find the files owned by harry, and copy it to catalog: /opt/dir
Correct Answer:
# cd /opt/
# mkdir dir
# find / -user harry -exec cp -rfp {} /opt/dir/ \;

QUESTION 6
Configure a task: plan to run echo hello command at 14:23 every day.
Correct Answer:
# which echo
# crontab –e
23 14 * * * /bin/echo hello
# crontab -l (Verify)

QUESTION 7
Create a 512M partition, make it as ext4 file system, mounted automatically under /mnt/data and which take effect automatically at boot-start.
Correct Answer:
# fdisk /dev/vda
# partprobe /dev/vda
# mkfs -t ext4 /dev/vda5
# mkdir -p /data
# vim /etc/fstab
/dev/vda5 /data ext4 defaults 0 0
# mount -a

QUESTION 8
Upgrading the kernel as 2.6.36.7.1, and configure the system to Start the default kernel, keep the old kernel available.
Correct Answer:
# cat /etc/grub.conf
# cd /boot
# lftp it
# get dr/dom/kernel-xxxx.rpm
# rpm -ivh kernel-xxxx.rpm
# vim
/etc/grub.conf
default=0

QUESTION 9
Configure autofs to make sure after login successfully, it has the home directory autofs, which is shared as /rhome/ldapuser40 at the ip: 172.24.40.10. and it also requires that, EX200 dumps other ldap users can use the home directory normally.
Correct Answer:
# chkconfig autofs on
# cd /etc/
# vim /etc/auto.master
/rhome /etc/auto.ldap
# cp auto.misc auto.ldap
# vim auto.ladp
ldapuser40 -rw,soft,intr 172.24.40.10:/rhome/ldapuser40
* -rw,soft,intr 172.16.40.10:/rhome/&
# service autofs stop
# server autofs start
# showmount -e 172.24.40.10
# su – ladpuser40

QUESTION 10
Configure the system synchronous as 172.24.40.10.
Correct Answer:
Graphical Interfaces:
System–>Administration–>Date & Time
OR
# system-config-date

QUESTION 11
Create a volume group, and set 16M as a extends. And divided a volume group containing 50 extends on volume group lv, make it as ext4 file system, and mounted automatically under /mnt/data.
Correct Answer:
# pvcreate /dev/sda7 /dev/sda8
# vgcreate -s 16M vg1 /dev/sda7 /dev/sda8
# lvcreate -l 50 -n lvm02
# mkfs.ext4 /dev/vg1/lvm02
# blkid /dev/vg1/lv1
# vim /etc/fstab
# mkdir -p /mnt/data
UUID=xxxxxxxx /mnt/data ext4 defaults 0 0
# vim /etc/fstab
# mount -a
# mount
(Verify)

QUESTION 12
Change the logical volume capacity named vo from 190M to 300M. and the size of the floating range should set between 280 and 320. (This logical volume has been mounted in advance.)
Correct Answer:
# vgdisplay
(Check the capacity of vg, if the capacity is not enough, need to create pv , vgextend , lvextend)
# lvdisplay (Check lv)
# lvextend -L +110M /dev/vg2/lv2
# resize2fs /dev/vg2/lv2
# mount -a
(Verify)
——————————————————————————- (Decrease lvm)
# umount /media
# fsck -f /dev/vg2/lv2
# resize2fs -f /dev/vg2/lv2 100M
# lvreduce -L 100M /dev/vg2/lv2
# mount -a
# lvdisplay (Verify)
OR
# e2fsck -f /dev/vg1/lvm02
# resize2fs -f /dev/vg1/lvm02
# mount /dev/vg1/lvm01 /mnt
# lvreduce -L 1G -n /dev/vg1/lvm02
# lvdisplay (Verify)

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Vendor: Juniper
Certifications: JNCIA
Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Internet Associate, Junos(JNCIA-Junos)
Exam Code: JN0-102
Total Questions: 395 Q&As
101-400 dumps
QUESTION 1
What is the purpose of the Filesystem Hierarchy Standard?
A. It is a security model used to ensure files are organized according to their permissions and accessibility.
B. It provides unified tools to create, maintain and manage multiple filesystems in a common way.
C. It defines a common internal structure of inodes for all compliant filesystems.
D. It is a distribution neutral description of locations of files and directories.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
After moving data to a new filesystem, how can the former path of the data be kept intact in order to avoid reconfiguration of existing applications? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. By creating an ACL redirection from the old to the new path of the data.
B. By creating a hard link from the old to the new path of the data.
C. By creating a symbolic link from the old to the new path of the data.
D. By running the command touch on the old path.
E. By mounting the new filesystem on the original path of the data.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
Which of the following commands kills the process with the PID 123 but allows the process to “clean up” before exiting?
A. kill -PIPE 123
B. kill -KILL 123
C. kill -STOP 123
D. kill -TERM 123
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following commands changes the number of days before the ext3 filesystem on /dev/sda1 has to run through a full filesystem check while booting? 101-400 dumps
A. tune2fs -d 200 /dev/sda1
B. tune2fs -c 200 /dev/sda1
C. tune2fs -i 200 /dev/sda1
D. tune2fs -n 200 /dev/sda1
E. tune2fs –days 200 /dev/sda1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following commands will print the last 10 lines of a text file to the standard output?
A. cat -n 10 filename
B. dump -n 10 filename
C. head -n 10 filename
D. tail -n 10 filename
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
What can the Logical Volume Manager (LVM) be used for? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. To create RAID 9 arrays.
B. To dynamically change the size of logical volumes.
C. To encrypt logical volumes.
D. To create snapshots.
E. To dynamically create or delete logical volumes.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 7
What is the effect of the egrep command when the -v option is used?
A. It enables color to highlight matching parts.
B. It only outputs non-matching lines.
C. It shows the command’s version information.
D. It changes the output order showing the last matching line first.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following settings for umask ensures that new files have the default permissions -rw-r—– ?
A. 0017
B. 0640
C. 0038
D. 0027
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following commands prints all files and directories within the /tmp directory or its subdirectories which are also owned by the user root? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. find /tmp -uid root -print
B. find -path /tmp -uid root
C. find /tmp -user root -print
D. find /tmp -user root
E. find -path /tmp -user root print
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
Which of the following commands can be used to display the inode number of a given file?
A. inode
B. ls
C. ln
D. cp
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following commands creates an ext3 filesystem on /dev/sdb1? 101-400 dumps (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. /sbin/mke2fs -j /dev/sdb1
B. /sbin/mkfs -t ext3 /dev/sdb1
C. /sbin/mkfs -c ext3 /dev/sdb1
D. /sbin/mke3fs -j /dev/sdb1
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
Which file in the /proc filesystem lists parameters passed from the bootloader to the kernel? (Specify the file name only without any path.)
Correct Answer: cmdline

QUESTION 13
Which option to the yum command will update the entire system? (Specify ONLY the option name without any additional parameters.)
Correct Answer: update

QUESTION 14
Which command displays a list of all background tasks running in the current shell? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)
Correct Answer: jobs

QUESTION 15
Which umask value will result in the default access permissions of 600 (rw——-) for files and 700 (rwx——) for directories? (Specify only the numerical umask value.)
Correct Answer: 0077

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[Best Oracle Real Dumps] Latest 1Z0-060 Dumps Oracle Exam Questions And Answers Update Youtube Demo http://www.roboleague.bg?page=latest-1z0-060-dumps-oracle-exam/ Mon, 16 Oct 2017 07:52:19 +0000 http://www.roboleague.bg?page=?p=183 Prepare for Oracle 1Z0-060 exam test with latest Oracle Database 1Z0-060 dumps pdf training materials and study guides. High quality latest Oracle Database 1Z0-060 dumps pdf questions and answers free download. https://www.lead4pass.com/1Z0-060.html dumps pdf practice files. Get the best Oracle Database 1Z0-060 dumps pdf and vce training resources from lead4pass, pass Oracle 1Z0-060 exam test […]

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Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Oracle Database
Exam Name: Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c
Exam Code: 1Z0-060
Total Questions: 150 Q&As
1Z0-060 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your multitenant container database, CDB1, is running in ARCHIVELOG mode and has two pluggable databases, HR_PDB and ACCOUNTS_PDB. An RMAN backup exists for the database.
You issue the command to open ACCOUNTS_PDB and find that the USERDATA.DBF data file for the default permanent tablespace USERDATA belonging to ACCOUNTS_PDB is corrupted.
What should you do before executing the commands to restore and recover the data file in ACCOUNTS_PDB?
A. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and then the USERDATA tablespace offline in ACCOUNTS_PDB.
B. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb CLOSE IMMEDIATE command.
C. Issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb RESTRICTED command.
D. Take the USERDATA tablespace offline in ACCOUNTS_PDB.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?
A. It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user connections.
B. A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.
C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the process monitor (PMON) process of each database instance.
D. The listener.ora configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol addresses to allow remote users to connect to a database instance.
E. The listener.ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directly.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true about the use of the procedures listed in the v$sysaux_occupants.move_procedure column?1Z0-060 dumps
A. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data to the SYSAUX tablespace from its current tablespace.
B. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data from the SYSAUX tablespace to another tablespace.
C. All the components may be moved into SYSAUX tablespace.
D. All the components may be moved from the SYSAUX tablespace.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
In order to exploit some new storage tiers that have been provisioned by a storage administrator, the partitions of a large heap table must be moved to other tablespaces in your Oracle 12c database?
Both local and global partitioned B-tree Indexes are defined on the table.
A high volume of transactions access the table during the day and a medium volume of transactions access it at night and during weekends.
Minimal disrupt ion to availability is required.
Which three statements are true about this requirement?
A. The partitions can be moved online to new tablespaces.
B. Global indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
C. The partitions can be compressed in the same tablespaces.
D. The partitions can be compressed in the new tablespaces.
E. Local indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 5
Which three are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle Database 12c when it is enabled?
A. Reduced logical I/O
B. Reduced virtual memory utilization
C. Improved parallel Execution performance
D. Improved Serial Execution performance
E. Reduced physical I/O
F. Reduced CPU utilization
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 6
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases (PDB), users complain about performance degradation.
How does real-time Automatic database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) check performance degradation and provide solutions?
A. It collects data from SGA and compares it with a preserved snapshot.
B. It collects data from SGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.
C. It collects data from SGA and compares it with the latest snapshot.
D. It collects data from both SGA and PGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is enabled? 1Z0-060 dumps
A. Oracle Data Pump
B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)
C. Oracle Label Security
D. Oracle Database Vault
E. Oracle Real Application Security
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Examine the following commands for redefining a table with Virtual Private Database (VPD) policies:
1Z0-060 dumps
Which two statements are true about redefining the table?
A. All the triggers for the table are disabled without changing any of the column names or column types in the table.
B. The primary key constraint on the EMPLOYEES table is disabled during redefinition.
C. VPD policies are copied from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
D. You must copy the VPD policies manually from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which three are true about the large pool for an Oracle database instance that supports shared server connections?
A. Allocates memory for RMAN backup and restore operations
B. Allocates memory for shared and private SQL areas
C. Contains a cursor area for storing runtime information about cursors
D. Contains stack space
E. Contains a hash area performing hash joins of tables
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
You notice that the performance of your production 24/7 Oracle database significantly degraded. Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want to restart the database instance.
How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?
A. Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.
B. Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA analysis.
C. Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
D. Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring.
E. Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage Management (ASM). You use RMAN to back up the database and the MD_BACKUP command to back up the ASM metadata regularly. You lost an ASM disk group DG1 due to hardware failure. 1Z0-060 dumps
In which three ways can you re-create the lost disk group and restore the data?
A. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore metadata for an existing disk group by passing the existing disk group name as an input parameter and use RMAN to restore the data.
B. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up disk group and data on the disk group.
C. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore the disk group with the changed disk group specification, failure group specification, name, and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.
D. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up disk group name and same set of disks and failure group configuration, and use RMAN to restore the data.
E. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore both the metadata and data for the failed disk group.
F. Use the MKDG command to add a new disk group DG1 with the same or different specifications for failure group and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 12
Your multitenant container (CDB) contains two pluggable databases (PDB), HR_PDB and ACCOUNTS_PDB, both of which use the CDB tablespace. The temp file is called temp01.tmp.
A user issues a query on a table on one of the PDBs and receives the following error:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01565: error in identifying file `/u01/app/oracle/oradata/CDB1/temp01.tmp’ ORA-27037: unable to obtain file status Identify two ways to rectify the error.
A. Add a new temp file to the temporary tablespace and drop the temp file that that produced the error.
B. Shut down the database instance, restore the temp01.tmp file from the backup, and then restart the database.
C. Take the temporary tablespace offline, recover the missing temp file by applying redo logs, and then bring the temporary tablespace online.
D. Shutdown the database instance, restore and recover the temp file from the backup, and then open the database with RESETLOGS.
E. Shut down the database instance and then restart the CDB and PDBs.
Correct Answer: AE

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