New IT Certification Real Exam Questions And Answers For Cisco, CompTIA, HP, IBM And Microsoft http://www.certpub.com 100% Latest Update According To The Latest Real Exam, Helps You to Get Your IT Certification Easily. Wed, 05 Jul 2017 02:04:42 +0000 en-US hourly 1 https://wordpress.org/?v=4.7.5 [Best Cisco Real Dumps] Update Free Latest Cisco 200-125 Dumps PDF Practice Files And Youtube http://www.roboleague.bg?page=latest-cisco-200-125-dumps/ http://www.roboleague.bg?page=latest-cisco-200-125-dumps/#respond Wed, 05 Jul 2017 02:02:14 +0000 http://www.roboleague.bg?page=?p=80 High quality 200-125 Dumps PDF to get certification in Cisco CCNA Routing and Switching V3. Real Cisco 200-125 dumps exam practice questions and answers in PDF and Practice test format. http://www.lead4pass.com/200-125.html dumps exam materials free update. Download 200-125 dumps training materials and practice files online, pass 200-125 exam test easily at first try.

Question No : 1
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Answer: B,D,E

Explanation:
Microsegmentation is a network design (functionality) where each workstation or device on a network gets its own dedicated segment (collision domain) to the switch. Each network device gets the full bandwidth of the segment and does not have to share the segment with other devices. Microsegmentation reduces and can even eliminate collisions because each segment is its own collision domain ->. 200-125 pdf
Note: Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions but it increases the number of collision domains.

Question No : 2
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Answer: D

Explanation:
A router on a stick allows you to use sub-interfaces to create multiple logical networks on a single physical interface. 200-125 dumps

Question No : 3
Refer to exhibit:
200-125 dumps
Which two destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)
A. the IP address of Switch 1
B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the IP address of Host C
D. the MAC address of Host C
E. the IP address of the router’s E0 interface
F. the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface
Answer: C,F

Explanation:
While transferring data through many different networks, the source and destination IP addresses are not changed. Only the source and destination MAC addresses are changed.
So in this case Host A will use the IP address of Host C and the MAC address of E0 interface to send data. 200-125 dumps When the router receives this data, it replaces the source MAC address with its own E1 interface’s MAC address and replaces the destination MAC address with Host C’s MAC address before sending to Host C.

Question No : 4
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Answer: A

Explanation:
FTP belongs to Application layer and it is also the 200-125 pdf highest layer of the OSI model.

Question No : 5
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Answer: A,D,E

Explanation:
The idea behind a WAN is to be able to connect two DTE networks together through a DCE network. The network’s DCE device (includes CSU/DSU) provides clocking to the DTEconnected interface (the router’s serial interface).

Question No : 6
Refer to the exhibit:
200-125 dumps
What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.) 200-125 pdf
A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.
Answer: A,C,F

Explanation:
Remember, the source and destination MAC changes as each router hop along with the TTL being decremented but the source and destination IP address remain the same from source to destination.

Question No : 7
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Modern Ethernet networks built with switches and full-duplex connections no longer utilize CSMA/CD. 200-125 dumps CSMA/CD is only used in obsolete shared media Ethernet (which uses repeater or hub).

Question No : 8
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)
A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access
Answer: C,D

Explanation:
Ethernet network is a shared environment so all devices have the right to access to the medium. If more than one device transmits simultaneously, the signals collide and cannot reach the destination.

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[Best Microsoft Real Dumps] Latest Microsoft 70-740 Dumps Practice Materials And Youtube Online Free Update http://www.roboleague.bg?page=latest-microsoft-70-740-dumps/ http://www.roboleague.bg?page=latest-microsoft-70-740-dumps/#respond Mon, 26 Jun 2017 03:29:08 +0000 http://www.roboleague.bg?page=?p=75 The best and most updated Microsoft MCSA Windows Server 2016 70-740 dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 70-740 test, http://www.itfinal.com/70-740.html dumps questions and answers, and to get certified by Microsoft MCSA 70-740 pdf Windows Server 2016. It is a best choice to accelerate your career as a professional in the Information Technology industry.

QUESTION 1
Your customer has one office. All software and hardware purchasing is centralized. You need to define the scope of a SAM program assessment for the customer.
Which information should you collect?
A. current license versions
B. install, move, add, change (IMAC) activities
C. list of people responsible for SAM sign-off
D. quantity of server licenses
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You collect the following information from a customer:
·Volume license agreements
·Hardware and software inventory procedures 70-740 pdf
You need to define the scope of a SAM program assessment for the customer.
Which information should you use?
A. physical asset locations
B. preferred software vendor
C. number of contract employees
D. number of IT staff
Correct Answer: A
70-740 dumps
QUESTION 3          70-740 dumps
You plan to assess your customer’s Microsoft SQL Server deployment for license compliance. The customer licenses SQL Server by using per-processor licenses.
You need to define the scope of the SAM assessment.
What should you do?
A. Gather all SQL Server Client Access Licenses (CALs).
B. Gather all Windows Server Client Access Licenses (CALs).
C. Identify infrastructure groups where SQL Server is installed.
D. Identify infrastructure groups where SQL Server is accessed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Your customer has one main office in Boston and three branch offices in London, New York, and Paris. All purchasing, software deployment, and inventory is centralized in the New York office. Microsoft Office is installed in only the Paris office. The main data center is in the London office. You plan to perform a SAM program assessment of Office for the customer. You need to visit one of the offices to collect data for the assessment.
Which office should you visit?
A. Boston
B. London
C. New York
D. Paris
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You plan to perform a SAM optimization assessment for a customer. You need to identify the phase during which roles, expectation, and responsibilities are assigned. 70-740 pdf
Which phase should you identify?
A. infrastructure analysis
B. optimization and planning
C. SAM discussions
D. workshop preparation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You plan to assess the SAM processes of a customer. You communicate roles, analyze the infrastructure, and conduct onsite discussions. 70-740 dumps
You need to identify how to improve the SAM processes.
What should you do?
A. Generate an inventory report.
B. Generate a SAM planning report.
C. Develop a project implementation plan.
D. Perform a SAM optimization assessment.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You plan to do a SAM optimization assessment for a customer. The customer has no documented SAM processes or defined roles.
You need to gather information for the assessment.
What should you do?
A. Collect sample SAM process documents.
B. Formally document the customer’s SAM processes.
C. Review the customer’s Active Directory forest structure.
D. Interview managers who have SAM-related responsibilities.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You plan to assess the SAM processes of an organization that has multiple departments. You create a survey to collect information on the SAM processes throughout the organization. You need to validate the information collected in the survey. 70-740 pdf
What should you do?
A. Interview the CEO.
B. Interview the IT staff.
C. Interview the department heads.
D. Interview the procurement staff.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Your customer has the following key performance indicators:
·A quarterly sign-off on SAM reports
·97 percent of its assets in inventory
You need to identify the minimum SAM maturity level represented by both of these indicators.
Which maturity level should you identify?
A. Basic
B. Dynamic
C. Rationalized
D. Standardized
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Your customer has the following key performance indicators:
·The SAM plan is defined and approved.
·Sign-off on SAM reports is performed annually.
·Direct SAM responsibility is identified throughout the organization. You need to identify the minimum SAM maturity level represented by all of these indicators. 70-740 dumps
Which maturity level should you identify?
A. Basic
B. Dynamic
C. Rationalized
D. Standardized
Correct Answer: D

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[Best Cisco Real Dumps] Latest Cisco 200-155 Dumps PDF Questions And Youtube Free Demo http://www.roboleague.bg?page=latest-cisco-200-155-dumps/ http://www.roboleague.bg?page=latest-cisco-200-155-dumps/#respond Wed, 07 Jun 2017 03:34:56 +0000 http://www.roboleague.bg?page=?p=70 Updated Cisco 200-155 exam questions and 200-155 dumps pdf training materials, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free. Pass the Cisco 200-155 exam with the http://www.itfinal.com/200-155.html best 200-155 VCE dumps, high quality actual Cisco 200-155 exam questions, practice tests with PDF and VCE format for Cisco 200-155 certification.

QUESTION 1
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
200-155
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 4
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. 200-155
200-155
The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.)
A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 6
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols? 200-155
A. transport type all
B. transport output all
C. transport preferred all
D. transport input all
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which two security appliances will you use in a network? (Choose two.)
A. ATM
B. IDS
C. IOS
D. IOX
E. IPS
F. SDM
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
how to see dhcp conflict?
A. show ip dhcp pool
B. show dhcp database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which type of mac address is aged automatically by the switch?
A. Dynamic
B. Static
C. automatic
D. manual
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which major component of the network virtualization architecture isolate users according to policy?
A. policy enforcement
B. network access control
C. network services virtualization
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which function does IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform to assist with troubleshooting
A. packet-loss detection
B. congestion detection
C. hop-by-hop response time
D. one way jitter measurement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which vlan?
A. on the default vlan
B. on the management vlan
C. on the native vlan
D. on any vlan except the default vlan
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports on a router?
A. show interface switchport
B. show ip interface brief
C. show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
D. show interface status
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
What is the maximum working distance of a 1000BASE-ZE SFP transceiver when ordinary single mode fiber?
A. up to 70 kilometers
B. up to 40 kilometers
C. up to 550 meters
D. up to 10 kilometers
Correct Answer: D

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[Best Microsoft Real Exam] Latest Microsoft 70-412 Exam Questions And Youtube http://www.roboleague.bg?page=latest-microsoft-70-412-exam/ http://www.roboleague.bg?page=latest-microsoft-70-412-exam/#respond Tue, 09 May 2017 04:02:13 +0000 http://www.roboleague.bg?page=?p=65 QUESTION 1
Your company has offices in Montreal, New York, and Amsterdam. The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso .com. An Active Directory site exists for each office. All of the sites connect to 70-412 exam each other by using the DEFAULTIPSITELINK site link.
You need to ensure that only between 20:00 and 08:00, the domain controllers in the Montreal office replicate the Active Directory changes to the domain controllers in the Amsterdam office.
The solution must ensure that the domain controllers in the Montreal and the New York offices can replicate the Active Directory changes any time of day.
What should you do?
A. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Remove Amsterdam from DEFAULTIPSITE1INK. Modify the schedule of DEFAULTIPSITE1INK.
B. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Create a new site link bridge. Modify the schedule of DEFAU LTIPSITE1INK.
C. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Remove Amsterdam from DEFAULTIPSITELINK. Modify the schedule of the new site link.
D. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Create a new site link bridge. Modify the schedule of the new site link.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Very Smartly reworded with same 3 offices. In the exam correct answer is “Create a new site link that contains Newyork to Montreal. Remove Montreal from DEFAULTIPSITE1INK. Mod- ify the schedule of the new site link”.

QUESTION 2
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
From Server Manager, you install the Active Directory Certificate Services server role on Server1.
A domain administrator named Admin1 logs on to Server1.
When Admin1 runs the Certification Authority console, Admin1 receive the following error message.
70-412 exam
You need to ensure that when Admin1 opens the Certification Authority console on Server1, the error message does not appear.
What should you do?
A. Install the Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) tools.
B. Run the regsvr32.exe command.
C. Modify the PATH system variable.
D. Configure the Active Directory Certificate Services server role from Server Manager.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The error message is related to missing role configuration.
* Cannot Manage Active Directory Certificate Services 70-412 exam
Resolution: configure the two Certification Authority and Certification Authority Web Enroll- ment Roles:
70-412 exam

QUESTION 3
Your network contains two servers named HV1 and HV2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and have the Hyper-V server role installed.
HV1 hosts 25 virtual machines. The virtual machine configuration files and the virtual hard disks are stored in D:\VM.
You shut down all of the virtual machines on HV1.
You copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2.
You need to start all of the virtual machines on HV2. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Run the Import-VMInitialReplication cmdlet.
B. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and over- write the existing files. On HV2, run the Import Virtual Machine wizard.
C. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and over- write the existing files. On HV2, run the New Virtual Machine wizard.
D. Run the Import-VM cmdlet.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Import-VM
Imports a virtual machine from a file.
Example 70-412 exam
Imports the virtual machine from its configuration file. The virtual machine is registered in- place, so its files are not copied.

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a perimeter network and an internal network. The internal network con- tains an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.1 infrastructure. The infrastructure uses Active Directory as the attribute store.
You plan to deploy a federation server proxy to a server named Server2 in the perimeter net- work.
You need to identify which value must be included in the certificate that is deployed to Server2.
What should you identify?
A. The FQDN of the AD FS server
B. The name of the Federation Service
C. The name of the Active Directory domain
D. The public IP address of Server2
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
To add a host (A) record to corporate DNS for a federation server On a DNS server for the corporate network, open the DNS snap-in.
1. In the console tree, right-click the applicable forward lookup zone, and then click New Host (A).
2. In Name, type only the computer name of the federation server or federation server cluster (for example, type fs for the 70-412 exam fully qualified domain name (FQDN) fs. adatum .com).
3. In IP address, type the IP address for the federation server or federation server cluster (for ex- ample, 192.168.1.4).
4. Click Add Host.

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High Pass Guarantee With Latest IBM C2090-930 Exam Questions And Answers http://www.roboleague.bg?page=latest-ibm-c2090-930-exam/ http://www.roboleague.bg?page=latest-ibm-c2090-930-exam/#respond Tue, 18 Apr 2017 07:56:01 +0000 http://www.roboleague.bg?page=?p=61 Question No : 1
You have collected data about a set of patients, all of whom suffered from the same illness. During their course of treatment, each patient responded to one of five medications. The column. C2090-930 exam Drug, is a character field that describes the medication. You need to find out which proportion of the patients responded to each drug.
Which node should be used?
A. Web node
B. Distribution node
C. Sim Fit node
D. Evaluation node
Answer: C

Question No : 2
When describing data, which two nodes address value types? (Choose two.)
A. Data Audit node
B. Statistics node
C. Type node
D. Report node
Answer: A,C

Question No : 3
A telecommunication company wants to predict their customers’ purchase decisions from four service options (categorical value).
Using IBM SPSS Modeler Professional, which modeling node should be used?
A. Linear
B. Logistic
C. SuperNode
D. Regression
Answer: D
C2090-930
Question No : 4      C2090-930 exam
How many stages are there in the CRISP-DM process model?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
Answer: C

Question No : 5
What is a unique capability of scripting in IBM SPSS Modeler Professional?
A. SuperNode creation
B. Process automation
C. Model customization
D. Output formatting
Answer: A

Question No : 6
An organization wants to determine why they are losing customers.
Which supervised modeling technique would be used to accomplish this task?
A. PCA
B. QUEST
C. Apriori
D. Kohonen
Answer: C

Question No : 7
You want to create a Filter node to keep only a subset of the variables used in model building, based on predictor importance.
Which menu in the model nugget browser provides this functionality?
A. File
B. Preview
C. View
D. Generate
Answer: C

Question No : 8
You are attempting to flag outliers in a data set across multiple fields.
In IBM SPSS Modeler Professional, what would be the appropriate node to use?
A. COX
B. PCA/Factor
C. Anomaly
D. Apriori
Answer: B

Question No : 9
You are in the Business Understanding stage of the CRISP-DM process.
Which task is part of this stage?  C2090-930 exam
A. Confirmation that the correct model has been chosen
B. Confirmation that the data is adequate for analysis
C. Completion of the Data Description Report
D. Completion of the Project Plan
Answer: B

Question No : 10
A customer has a large data set with no target variables or known results and is looking for a good approach for understanding more about groups within the data set.
Which two IBM SPSS Modeler Professional node applications represent a correct approach to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. The customer uses a Kohonen node in an effort to group data into clusters using a selforganizing map of neurons.
B. The customer uses a TwoStep node to identify the optimal set of clusters within the data.
C. The customer uses a RFM Aggregate node to identify the optimal set of clusters within the data.
D. The customer uses a Carma node in an effort to group data into clusters using a selforganizing map of neurons.
Answer: A,B

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How To Pass 70-480 Exam Easily With Latest Microsoft 70-480 VCE Questions http://www.roboleague.bg?page=latest-microsoft-70-480-vce/ http://www.roboleague.bg?page=latest-microsoft-70-480-vce/#respond Wed, 05 Apr 2017 05:58:48 +0000 http://www.roboleague.bg?page=?p=56 Question No : 1
You are developing a web page that will be divided into three vertical sections. The main content of the site will be placed in the center section. The two outer sections will contain advertisements.
You have the Microsoft 70-480 vce exam following requirements:
The main content section must be set to two times the width of the advertising sections.
The layout must be specified by using the CSS3 flexible box model.
You need to ensure that the visual layout of the page meets the requirements.
Which CSS3 property should you use?
A. box-orient
B. box-flex-group
C. box-flex
D. box-direction
Answer: C

Question No : 2
You are creating a class named Sedan that must inherit from the Car class. The Sedan class must modify the inherited fourDoor () method. The Car class is defined as follows.
70-480
Future instances of Sedan must be created with the overridden method.
You need to write the code to implement the Sedan class.
Which two code segments should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
70-480
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B,C

Question No : 3
You are developing an HTML5 page that includes several paragraph elements.
You have the 70-480 vce following requirements:
Add a drop shadow that is one inch below the text in the paragraph
Set the radius of the drop shadow to five pixels
You need to style the paragraphs to meet the requirements.
Which CSS style should you use?
A. text-shadow: 72pt 0pt 5pt
B. text-shadow: 5px lin 0px;
C. text-shadow: 72pt 5em 0px
D. text-shadow: 72pt 0em 5px;
Answer: B

Question No : 4
You are modifying a blog site to improve search engine readability.
You need to group relevant page content together to maximize search engine readability.
Which tag should you use?
A. <nav>
B. <article>
C. <span>
D. <div>
Answer: B

Question No : 5
You are testing the value of the following variable in JavaScript.
var height = “300”;
A block of code must execute if the following conditions are true:
The height variable is set to 300
The height variable is of type string
You need to implement the code to run the test.
Which line of code should you use?
A. if (height = = 300)
B. if (height = = “300”)
C. if (height ! “300”)
D. if (height ! = 300)
Answer: B

Question No : 6
You are developing an HTML5 web application and are styling text.
You need to use the text-transform CSS property.
Which values are valid for the text-transform property?
A. hidden
B. blink
C. capitalize
D. line-through
Answer: C

Question No : 7
You are developing a web application that uses web workers to process images extracted from an HTML5 CANVAS object on a web page. 70-480 vce
You need to pass messages between the web workers and the web page.
Which three types of objects should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)
A. JSON
B. Window
C. Parent
D. String
E. JavaScript
F. DOM
Answer: A,D,E

Question No : 8
You are developing a web application that consumes services from a third-party application. A web worker processes the third-party application requests in the background.
A page in the application instantiates the web worker process.
You need to establish two-way communications between the web worker process and the page.
Which two actions will achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. From the web worker, use the onconnect event handler of the main page to capture events.
B. From the main page, use the onmessage event handler of the web worker to capture events.
C. From the web worker, use the onmessage event handler of the main page to capture events.
D. From the main page, use the onconnect event handler of the web worker to capture events.
Answer: B,C

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Update Latest Microsoft 70-410 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers http://www.roboleague.bg?page=latest-microsoft-70-410-dumps/ http://www.roboleague.bg?page=latest-microsoft-70-410-dumps/#respond Sat, 18 Mar 2017 02:33:23 +0000 http://www.roboleague.bg?page=?p=50 QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server 1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server 1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
You have fixed-size VHD named Files.vhd.
You need to make the contents in Files.vhd available to several virtual machines. The solution must meet the Microsoft 70-410 dumps following requirements:
– Ensure that if the contents are changed on any virtual machine, the changes are not reflected on the other virtual machines.
– Minimize the amount of disk space used.
What should you do?
A. Create a fixed-size VHDX. Transfer the information from Files.vhd to the new VHDX file.
B. Convert Files.vhd to a dynamically expanding VHD?
C. Create a dynamically expanding VHDX. Transfer the information from Files.vhd to the new VHDX file.
D. Create differencing VHDs that use Files.vhd as the parent disk.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and a client computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 8. DC1 is configured as a DHCP server as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) Computer1 is configured to obtain an IP address automatically. You need to 70-410 pdf ensure that Computer1 can receive an IP address from DC1.
What should you do?
70-410
A. Disable the Allow filters.
B. Disable the Deny filters
C. Activate Scope [10.1.1.0] Contoso.com.
D. Authorize dc1.contoso.com.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that hosts the primary DNS zone for contoso.com. All client computers are configured to 70-410 vce use DC1 as the primary DNS server. You need to configure DC1 to resolve any DNS requests that are not for the contoso.com zone by querying the DNS server of your Internet Service Provider (ISP).
What should you configure?
A. Name server (NS) records
B. Condition& forwarders
C. Forwarders
D. Naming Authority Pointer (NAPTR) DNS resource records (RR)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to ensure that when users log on to Server1, their user account is added automatically to a local group named Group1 during the log on process.
Which Group Policy settings should you modify?
A. Restricted Groups
B. Security Options
C. User Rights Assignment
D. Preferences
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 500 servers that 70-410 exam run Windows Server 2012 R2. You have a written security policy that states the following:
– Only required ports must be open on the servers.
– All of the servers must have Windows Firewall enabled.
– Client computers used by Administrators must be allowed to access all of the ports on all of the servers.
– Client computers used by the Administrators must be authenticated before the client computers can access the servers.
You have a client computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 8. You need to ensure that you can use Computer1 to access all of the ports on all of the servers successfully. The solution must adhere to the security policy.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. On Computer1, create a connection security rule
B. On all of the servers, create an outbound rule and select the Allow the connection if it is secureoption.
C. On all of the servers, create an inbound rule and select the Allow the connection if it is secureoption.
D. On Computer1, create an inbound rule and select the Allow the connection if it is secureoption.
E. On Computer1, create an outbound rule and select the Allow the connection if it is secureoption
F. On all of the servers, create a connection security rule
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1). Both servers are member servers. On Server2, you install all of the software required to ensure that Server2 can be managed remotely from Server Manager.
You need to ensure that 70-410 you can manage Server2 from Server1 by using Server Manager. Which two tasks should you perform on Server2? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the systempropertiesremote.execommand
B. Run the Enable-PsRemotingcmdlet.
C. Run the Enable-PsSessionConfigurationcmdlet
D. Run the Confiqure-SMRemoting.ps1script
E. Run the Set-ExecutionPolicycmdlet.
Correct Answer: DE

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Latest CompTIA SK0-004 PDF Exam Practice Materials Online Free Update http://www.roboleague.bg?page=latest-comptia-sk0-004-pdf/ http://www.roboleague.bg?page=latest-comptia-sk0-004-pdf/#respond Sat, 04 Mar 2017 02:03:15 +0000 http://www.roboleague.bg?page=?p=45 QUESTION 1
Historical data shows that on average, a server is likely to CompTIA SK0-004 pdf fail once every nine months. A company has purchased 24×7, four hour hardware response to replace a server’s failed hardware. Additionally, the company can restore a server to its operational status within six hours from the time the failed hardware has been replaced. Which of the following describes this scenario?
A. The company’s MTTR is ten hours.
B. Individual servers have 99.999% uptime.
C. Service can be restored within four hours.
D. The operational SLA is six hours.
Answer: A
SK0-004
QUESTION 2
A server administrator is configuring access control on a file server for an organization. The Human Resources manager is taking a leave of SK0-004 absence for three months, during which time an interim Human Resources manager will take over the duties of the position. Which of the following types of access control should be configured on the file server?
A. MAC
B. CBAC
C. DAC
D. RBAC
Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A server administrator is configuring a new server for an organization. The server will function as a firewall and proxy server, as well as provideNAT services for other devices on the SK0-004 network. Which of the following BEST describes how the network hardware on the server should be configured?
A. The server should have at least two NICs: one configured with an IP address on the inside network, and one with an IP address on the outside network.
B. The server should have at least two NICs: each NIC should be configured with an IP address on the same network segment.
C. The server requires only one NIC, as the NIC can be configured with two IP addresses: one for the inside network segment, and one for the outside network segment.
D. The server requires at least three NICs: one configured with an IP address for the intranet clients, one with an IP address on the inside network, and one with an IP address on the outside network.
Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Users in the accounting department report that they are unable to access a shared network drive used by all departments. Upon SK0-004 troubleshooting, a technician determines that three users in the marketing department, two in sales, five in human resources, and ten in IT are all successfully accessing the shared network drive. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the issue?
A. Corrupt user profiles
B. Incorrect NTFS group permissions
C. The share is unsecured
D. Excessive page filing on server
Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A technician receives an error messagewhentrying to boot the SK0-004 server stating the operating system was not found. Change management logs indicateanew hard drive backplane was installed in the server last night. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST when troubleshooting the issue?
A. Check system board cables
B. Rebuild RAID array
C. Reinstall server OS
D. Remove newly installed hardware
Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the SK0-004 following is a benefit of utilizing a type 2 hypervisor to manage guests?
A. The administration of the guest OS is significantly less complex.
B. There is reduced resource overhead since there is no OS layer.
C. A type 2 hypervisor offers increased performance over a type 1 hypervisor.
D. There is increased hardware support since there is an OS layer.
Answer: D

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Latest Cisco 400-101 PDF Exam Practice Materials Online Free Update http://www.roboleague.bg?page=cisco-400-101-pdf-exam/ http://www.roboleague.bg?page=cisco-400-101-pdf-exam/#respond Mon, 27 Feb 2017 01:58:22 +0000 http://www.roboleague.bg?page=?p=40 Question No : 1
Which two mechanisms can be used to eliminate Cisco 400-101 pdf Express Forwarding polarization? (Choose two.)
A. alternating cost links
B. the unique-ID/universal-ID algorithm
C. Cisco Express Forwarding antipolarization
D. different hashing inputs at each layer of the network
Answer: B,D
400-101
Explanation:
This document describes how Cisco 400-101 Express Forwarding (CEF) polarization can cause suboptimal use of redundant paths to a destination network. CEF polarization is the effect when a hash algorithm chooses a particular path and the redundant paths remain completely unused.

How to Avoid CEF Polarization
Alternate between default (SIP and DIP) and full (SIP + DIP + Layer4 ports) hashing inputs configuration at each layer of the network. Alternate between an even and odd number of ECMP links at each layer of the network. The CEF load-balancing does not depend on how the protocol routes are inserted in the routing table. Therefore, the 400-101 OSPF routes exhibit the same behavior as EIGRP. In a hierarchical network where there are several routers that perform load-sharing in a row, they all use same algorithm to load-share.
400-101
The hash algorithm load-balances this way by default:
1: 1
2: 7-8
3: 1-1-1
4: 1-1-1-2
5: 1-1-1-1-1
6: 1-2-2-2-2-2
7: 1-1-1-1-1-1-1
8: 1-1-1-2-2-2-2-2
The number before the colon represents the number of equal-cost paths. The number after the colon represents the proportion of 400-101 traffic which is forwarded per path.

This means that:
For two equal cost paths, load-sharing is 46.666%-53.333%, not 50%-50%.
For three equal cost paths, load-sharing is 33.33%-33.33%-33.33% (as expected).
For four equal cost paths, load-sharing is 20%-20%-20%-40% and not 25%-25%-25%-25%.

This illustrates that, when there is even number of ECMP links, the traffic is not loadbalanced.
Cisco 400-101 IOS introduced a concept called unique-ID/universal-ID which helps avoid CEF polarization. This algorithm, called the universal algorithm (the default in current Cisco IOS versions), adds a 32-bit router-specific value to the hash function (called the universal ID – this is a randomly generated value at the time of the switch boot up that can can be manually controlled). This seeds the hash function on each router with a unique ID, which ensures that the same source/destination pair hash into a different value on different routers along the path. This process provides a better network-wide load-sharing and circumvents the polarization issue. This unique -ID concept does not work for an even number of equal-cost paths due to a hardware limitation, but it works perfectly for an odd number of equal-cost paths. In order to overcome this problem, Cisco 400-101 IOS adds one link to the hardware adjacency table when there is an even number of equalcost paths in order to make the system believe that there is an odd number of equal-cost links.

Question No : 2
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101
Which two are causes of output queue drops on FastEthernet0/0? (Choose two.)
A. an oversubscribed input service policy on FastEthernet0/0
B. a duplex mismatch on FastEthernet0/0
C. a bad cable connected to FastEthernet0/0
D. an oversubscribed output service policy on FastEthernet0/0
E. The router trying to send more than 100 Mb/s out of FastEthernet0/0
Answer: D,E

Explanation:
Output drops are caused by a congested interface. For example, the traffic rate on the outgoing interface cannot accept all packets that should be sent out, or a service policy is applied that is oversubscribed. The 400-101 ultimate solution to resolve the problem is to increase the line speed. However, there are ways to prevent, decrease, or control output drops when you do not want to increase the line speed. You can prevent output drops only if output drops are a consequence of short bursts of data. If output drops are caused by a constant high-rate flow, you cannot prevent the drops. However, you can control them.

Question No : 3
Which two mechanisms provide Cisco 400-101 IOS XE Software with control plane and data plane separation? (Choose two.)
A. Forwarding and Feature Manager
B. Forwarding Engine Driver
C. Forwarding Performance Management
D. Forwarding Information Base
Answer: A,B

Explanation:
Control Plane and Data Plane Separation
IOS XE introduces an opportunity to enable teams to 400-101 now build drivers for new Data Plane ASICs outside the IOS instance and have them program to a set of standard APIs which in turn enforces Control Plane and Data Plane processing separation. IOS XE accomplishes Control Plane / Data Plane separation through the introduction of the Forwarding and Feature Manager (FFM) and its standard interface to the Forwarding Engine Driver (FED). FFM provides a set of APIs to Control Plane processes. In turn, the FFM programs the Data Plane via the FED and maintains forwarding state for the system. The FED is the instantiation of the hardware driver for the Data Plane and is provided by the platform.

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Download Free Microsoft MB6-704 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers http://www.roboleague.bg?page=microsoft-mb6-704-dumps/ http://www.roboleague.bg?page=microsoft-mb6-704-dumps/#respond Wed, 15 Feb 2017 01:41:25 +0000 http://www.roboleague.bg?page=?p=36 Vendor: Microsoft
Exam Code: MB6-704
Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 R3 CU8 Development Introduction
Version: Demo

QUESTION 1
You need to write X++ code that is common to both the Microsoft MB6-704 dumps CustTable table and the Vend Table ta- ble. The solution must minimize the duplication of code.
What should you do?
A. Modify CustTable to add all of the fields in Vend Table. Write X* + code that uses Cust- Table.
B. Create a view that includes the fields in both CustTable and Vend Table. Write X+ + code that uses the view.
C. Create a table that extends from CustTable and Vend Table. Write X+ + code that uses the new table.
D. Create a map that links CustTable and Vend Table. Write X++ code that uses the map.
Correct Answer: D Explanation

MB6-704

Explanation:
A map can unify the access to similar columns and methods that are present in multiple tables. You associate a map field with a field in one or more tables. This enables you to use the same field name to access fields with different names in different tables. Methods on maps enable you to create or modify methods that act on the table fields that the map references.
The benefits of maps include:
* Code reuse – a map method enables you to add code that runs against the map fields. A single map method prevents the MB6-704 duplication of methods and code on each table.
* Simplicity – maps provide a single interface to fields in multiple tables. This means that any object referencing the map field can be used against multiple tables without changing any field names.
* Consistency – table fields with varying names can be accessed in code in a consistent manner. For example by using a map, fields named Zip in one table, ZipCode in another, and PostalCode in yet another table can all be accessed by the name ZipCode.

QUESTION 2
You plan to create a Fact Box based on a query that queries a table.
You need to MB6-704 pdf ensure that all of the fields in the table are available to the Fact Box. What should you do?
A. From the Fields node of the form s data sources, set the Dynamic property to Unselected
B. From the Fields node of the table, set the Dynamic property to Yes.
C. From the Fields node of the query’s data sources, set the Dynamic property to Yes.
D. From the Fields node of the table, set the Dynamic property to Unselected.
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation:
The Fields node contains the data elements returned by the table, map, or view. If you set the Fields node Dynamic property to Yes, all the MB6-704 fields in the data source are returned. If you set the Dynamic property to No, you can right-click a field and select Delete to remove it from the data source.

QUESTION 3
You need to MB6-704 provide users with the ability to open a Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) report from a form.
What should you use?
A. A data source
B. A form part
C. An output menu item
D. A display method
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Use the report servers form to connect a Microsoft Dynamics AX Application Object Server (AOS) instance to a Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services instance.
Note: In Microsoft Dynamics AX, navigation to MB6-704 forms and reports is organized into modules. A module is a collection of forms, and reports that you use for a specified business activity.

QUESTION 4
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server Repotting Services (SSRS) report for a customer.
You need to ensure that the MB6-704 vce report is available in Dynamics AX.
Where should you save the report?
A. The Dynamics AX model store
B. The SSRS server
C. The Application Object Server (AOS)
D. The Dynamics AX clients
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which three statements accurately describe views in Dynamics AX? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. A view can be created from a query.
B. You can update a view by using the Table Browser.
C. Views can be used to display a subset of the data from the source tables.
D. The data for the view is refreshed periodically by using a batch job.
E. The definition of the view is stored in the database when the view is synchronized.
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:
A: A view uses a query to retrieve data fields from one or more database tables.
C: A view enables you to MB6-704 retrieve and return only the data that is relevant for a particular user or scenario. A view can improve performance by returning only relevant fields to the user.
E: When you create a view, the view definition is generated and stored in the database. When that view is accessed, the view dynamically retrieves the data that satisfies the view definition.

QUESTION 6
You have a table that contains invoices.
You need to create a Fact Box that displays the MB6-704 exam number of invoices in the table. Which type of Fact Box should you use?
A. form part
B. cue group
C. cue
D. info part
Correct Answer: D Explanation

Explanation:
* Info part:
part that shows a collection of data fields from a specified query. An info part uses metadata to describe
how the data appears. As a result, you can use an info part in both the client and EP.
* FactBox type: Fields and values Info part or form part A FactBox that shows a list of field names and values. The value can include a link that opens the record in a form.
Incorrect:
Not A: Form Part A part that represents a pointer to a form. You use a form part when you want a form to appear in the MB6-704 FactBox pane, enhanced preview, or preview pane.
Not B: cue group A part that includes reference to one or more cues. You use a cue group to list a collection of query results.
Typically, the list shows summary data that is related to a record or a task.

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