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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0
Exam Code: 300-075
Total Questions: 420 Q&As

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Latest Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-075 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
Which statement is true when considering a Cisco VoIP environment for regional configuration?
A. G.711 requires 128K of bandwidth per call.
B. G.729 requires 24K of bandwidth per call.
C. The default codec does not matter if you have defined a hardware MTP in your Cisco Unified Communications Manager environment.
D. To deploy a Cisco H.323 gatekeeper, you must configure MTP resources on the gatekeeper and only use G.711 between regions.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which two options enable routers to provide basic call handling support for Cisco Unified IP Phones if they lose connection to all Cisco Unified Communications Manager systems? (Choose two.)
A. SCCP fallback
B. Cisco Unified Survivable Remote Site Telephony
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
D. MGCP fallback
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express in SRST mode
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 3
On which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration parameter does the CODEC that a Cisco IP Phone uses for a call depend?
A. enterprise parameters
B. media resources
C. physical location
D. region
E. location
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two formats are supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager to stream music on hold? (Choose two.)
A. G.711
B. G.729
C. G.723
D. G.722
E. G.728
F. Advanced Audio Codec
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Which three of the following are steps in configuring MGCP Fallback and Cisco Unified SRST? 300-075 dumps (Choose three)
A. Define the SRST reference for phones in the Device Pool configuration
B. Enable and configure the MGCP fallback and Cisco Unified SRST features on the IOS gateways.
C. Implement a simplified SRST dial plan on the remote-site-gateways to ensure connectivity for remote-site phones in SRST mode.
D. Enable SIP trunking between both remote and hub sites to provide mesh coverage.
E. Define the SRST reference in the configuration on the IP Phones.
F. Enable and configure the MGCP fallback on the IOS gateway but not Cisco Unified SRST since it is enabled automatically.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 6
Cisco Unified Communications Manager is configured with CAC for a maximum of 10 voice calls.
Which action routes the 11th call through the PSTN?
A. Configure an SIP trunk to the ISR.
B. Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager AAR.
C. Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager RSVP-enabled locations.
D. Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager locations.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which option describes the reason that transcoding resources are added in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. to enable transcoding resources in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server
B. to enable Cisco Unified Communications Manager to select the optimal single codec for end-to-end calls
C. to enable transcoding resources in Cisco IP Phones
D. to provide transcoding resources in Cisco IOS gateways to Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
The following exhibit shows configs for H.323 gateway. You have been asked to implement TEHO from a remote branch office with area code 301 to the HQ office with area code 201 using Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The remote office has an MGCP gateway and the HQ office has an H.323 gateway. Once the call arrives at the HQ, it should break out to the PSTN as a seven-digit local call. Which statement about the route pattern is true?
300-075 dumps
A. route pattern should be 91201.[2-9]XXXXXX with Discard Digit as Predot and Prefix 9
B. route pattern should be 91201.[2-9]XXXXXX with Discard Digit as Predot
C. route pattern should be 91201.[2-9]XXXXXX
D. route pattern should be 9.1201[2-9]XXXXXX with Discard Digit as Predot
E. route pattern should be 9.1201[2-9]XXXXXX with Discard Digit as Predot and Prefix 9
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: BCDE
Destination pattern is 91, HQ office area code is 201 .

QUESTION 9
An engineer implemented a VCS as a gateway to allow SIP and H323 endpoints to rregister, what recommended protocol or gateway should be used.
A. SIP trunk gatekeeper
B. H323 gateway
C. H321 gateway-based
D. SIP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Enabling authentication and encryption for CTI, JTAPI, and TAPI applications requires which two tasks? (Choose two.) (SourcE. Configuring Cisco IP Telephony Authentication and Encryption)
A. Enter the encryption key into the application.
B. Set up an IPsec association between the application and Cisco Unified CallManager.
C. Configure related security parameters in the CTI, JTAPI, and TAPI application.
D. Add the application user or end users to the Standard CTI Secure Connection user group, Standard CTI Allow Reception of SRTP Key Material user group, and Standard CTI Enabled user group.
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation: Incorrect answer: AB
You must also add the application users or the end users to the Standard CTI Secure Connection user group in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration to enable TLS for the application. After you add the user to this group and install the certificate, the application ensures that the user connects via the TLS port.

QUESTION 11
When device mobility mode is enabled or disabled for a cluster, to which does the cluster setting apply?
A. all phones in the cluster that support device mobility
B. all phones in the cluster that subscribed to device mobility
C. mobile phones in the cluster that support device mobility
D. mobile phones in the cluster that are in default mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
To stream multicast MOH to the remote site across the WAN, what should the minimum value for the Max Hops be configured as?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The Max Hops field in the Music On Hold (MOH) Server Configuration window indicates the maximum number of routers that an audio source is allowed to cross. If max hops is set to zero, the audio source must remain in its own subnet. If max hops is set to one, the audio source can cross up to one router to the next subnet. Cisco recommends setting max hops to two.

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
The HQ site uses area code 650. The BR1 site uses area code 408. The long distance national code for PSTN dialing is 1. To make a long distance national call, an HQ or BR1 user dials access code 9, followed by 1, and then the 10-digit number.
Both sites use MGCP gateways. AAR must use globalized call routing using a single route pattern. Assume that all outgoing PSTN numbers are localized at the egress gateway as shown in the exhibit. 300-075 dumps
How many route lists and route groups should be configured for AAR at a minimum?
A. a single route list with a local route group for each site
B. two route lists and two route groups for each site
C. a single route list and four route groups for each sitea
D. None. The AAR CSS can point directly to the route pattern.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
What must be configured on the HQ Cisco Unified Communications Manager to allow HQ users to dial the SAF learned directory number pattern 3XXX?
A. Route pattern 3XXX should be configured and made available to HQ users through the phone CSS.
B. Route pattern 3XXX should be configured and made available to HQ phone users through the phone AAR CSS.
C. The SAF partition assigned to the SAF learned patterns must be available to the HQ phone users through the phone CSS.
D. The SAF partition assigned to the SAF learned patterns must be available to the HQ phone users through the phone AAR CSS.
E. The SAF directory number pattern 3XXX will be made available to all users automatically as soon as the SAF partition is selected.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: ABD
By adopting the SAF network service, the call control discovery feature allows Cisco Unified Communications Manager to advertise itself along with other key attributes.

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
All HQ phones are configured to use HQ_MRGL and all BR phones are configured to use BR_MRGL. For the HQ phones always to use the hardware conference bridge as a first choice, which configuration should be implemented?
A. Ensure that both the hardware and software conference bridges are listed in the HQ_MRG. Ensure that the instance ID for the hardware conference bridge is 0.
B. Ensure that both the hardware and software conference bridges are listed in the HQ_MRG. The hardware conference bridge must be configured first.
C. Assign the hardware conference bridge to HQ_MRG. Configure a second HQ_MRG_2 and assign the software conference bridge to it. Add both the HQ_MRG and HQ_MRG_2 to the HQ_MRGL and list the HQ_MRG first.
D. Assign the hardware conference bridge to HQ_MRG. Configure a second HQ_MRG_2 and assign the software conference bridge to it. Configure an additional HQ_MRGL_2. Add the HQ_MRG to HQ_MRGL. Add HQ_MRG_2 to
HQ_MRGL_2. The HQ_MRGL should be assigned to the HQ phones. The HQ_MRGL_2 should be assigned to the HQ device pool.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
To ensure that the hardware bridge is utilized first with all its resources BEFORE the software bridge is used … you need to have two separate MRG’s and list the hardware MRG 1st in the MRGL …

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Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Oracle Database
Exam Name: Oracle Database 12c: Installation and Administration
Exam Code: 1Z0-062
Total Questions: 328 Q&As

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High Quality Oracle Database 1Z0-062 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
You find this query being used in your Oracle 12c database:
1Z0-062 dumps
Which method a used by the optimizer to limit the rows being returned?
A. A filter is added to the table query dynamically using ROWNUM to limit the rows to 20 percent of the total rows
B. All the rows are returned to the client or middle tier but only the first 20 percent are returned to the screen or the application.
C. A view is created during execution and a filter on the view limits the rows to 20 percent of the total rows.
D. A TOP-N query is created to limit the rows to 20 percent of the total rows
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know which change caused this performance difference. Which method or feature should you use?
A. Compare Period ADDM report
B. AWR Compare Period report
C. Active Session History (ASH) report
D. Taking a new snapshot and comparing it with a preserved snapshot
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The awrddrpt.sql report is the Automated Workload Repository Compare Period Report. The awrddrpt.sql script is located in the $ORACLE_HOME/rdbms/admin directory.
Inco

QUESTION 3
You want to capture column group usage and gather extended statistics for better cardinality estimates for the CUSTOMERS table in the SH schema.
Examine the following steps:
1. Issue the SELECT DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS (`SH\’, `CUSTOMERS\’) FROM dual statement.
2. Execute the DBMS_STATS.SEED_COL_USAGE (null, `SH\’, 500) procedure.
3. Execute the required queries on the CUSTOMERS table.
4. Issue the SELECT DBMS_STATS.REPORT_COL_USAGE (`SH\’, `CUSTOMERS\’) FROM dual statement.
Identify the correct sequence of steps.
A. 3, 2, 1, 4
B. 2, 3, 4, 1
C. 4, 1, 3, 2
D. 3, 2, 4, 1
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Step 1 (2). Seed column usage Oracle must observe a representative workload, in order to determine the appropriate column groups. Using the new procedure DBMS_STATS.SEED_COL_USAGE,

QUESTION 4
Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a stand-alone server is installed on your production host before installing the Oracle Database server. The database and listener are configured by using Oracle Restart.
Examine the following command and its output:
$ crsctl config has
CRS-4622: Oracle High Availability Services auto start is enabled.
What does this imply?
A. When you start an instance on a high with SQL *Plus dependent listeners and ASM disk groups are automatically started.
B. When a database instance is started by using the SRVCTL utility and listener startup fails, the instance is still started.
C. When a database is created by using SQL* Plus, it is automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
D. When you create a database service by modifying the SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter, it is automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
About Startup Dependencies Oracle Restart ensures that Oracle components are started in the proper order, in accordance with component dependencies. For example, if database files

QUESTION 5
Which three features work together, to allow a SQL statement to have different cursors for the same statement based on different selectivity ranges?
A. Bind Variable Peeking
B. SQL Plan Baselines
C. Adaptive Cursor Sharing
D. Bind variable used in a SQL statement
E. Literals in a SQL statement
Correct Answer: ACE

Explanation:
* In bind variable peeking (also known as bind peeking), the optimizer looks at the value in a bind variable when the database performs a hard parse of a statement.

QUESTION 6
Your database is open and the listener LISTNENER is up. You issue the command:
LSNRCTLandgt; RELOAD 1Z0-062 dumps
What is the effect of reload on sessions that were originally established by listener?
A. Only sessions based on static listener registrations are disconnected.
B. Existing connections are not disconnected; however, they cannot perform any operations until the listener completes the re-registration of the database instance and service handlers.
C. The sessions are not affected and continue to function normally.
D. All the sessions are terminated and active transactions are rolled back.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Examine this command:
SQL andgt; exec DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS (`SH\’, `CUSTOMERS\’, `PUBLISH\’, `false\’);
Which three statements are true about the effect of this command?
A. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered.
B. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered.
C. Any existing statistics for the CUSTOMERS table are still available to the optimizer at parse time.
D. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered are stored as pending statistics.
E. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered are stored as pending statistics.
Correct Answer: CDE

Explanation:
* SET_TABLE_PREFS Procedure
This procedure is used to set the statistics preferences of the specified table in the specified schema.
* Example: Using

QUESTION 8
You upgraded your database from pre-12c to a multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases (PDBs).
Examine the query and its output:
1Z0-062 dumps
Which two tasks must you perform to add users with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege to the password file?
A. Assign the appropriate operating system groups to SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, SYSKM.
B. Grant SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privileges to the intended users.
C. Re-create the password file with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege and the FORCE argument set to No.
D. Re-create the password file with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege, and FORCE arguments set to Yes.
E. Re-create the password file in the Oracle Database 12c format.
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:
* orapwd
/ You can create a database password file using the password file creation utility, ORAPWD.
The syntax of the ORAPWD command is as follows:
orapwd FI

QUESTION 9
A redaction policy was added to the SAL column of the SCOTT.EMP table:
1Z0-062 dumps
All users have their default set of system privileges.
For which three situations will data not be redacted?
A. SYS sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
B. SYSTEM sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
C. SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is set in the session
D. SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is granted to SCOTT
E. SCOTT sessions, because he is the owner of the table
F. SYSTEM session, only if the MGR role is set in the session
Correct Answer: ADF

Explanation:
* SYS_CONTEXT This is a twist on the SYS_CONTEXT function as it does not use USERENV. With this usage SYS_CONTEXT queries the list of the user\’s current default roles and returns

QUESTION 10
Identify three valid options for adding a pluggable database (PDB) to an existing multitenant container database (CDB).
A. Use the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to create a PDB using the files from the SEED.
B. Use the CREATE DATABASE . . . ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to provision a PDB by copying file from the SEED.
C. Use the DBMS_PDB package to clone an existing PDB.
D. Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug an Oracle 12c non-CDB database into an existing CDB.
E. Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug an Oracle 11 g Release 2 (11.2.0.3.0) non-CDB database into an existing CDB.
Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation:
Use the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to create a pluggable database (PDB). This statement enables you to perform the following tasks:
* (A) Create a PDB by us

QUESTION 11
The ORCL database is configured to support shared server mode. You want to ensure that a user connecting remotely to the database instance has a one-to-one ratio between client and server processes.
Which connection method guarantees that this requirement is met?
A. connecting by using an external naming method
B. connecting by using the easy connect method
C. creating a service in the database by using the dbms_service.create_service procedure and using this service for creating a local naming serviceandquot;
D. connecting by using the local naming method with the server = dedicated parameter set in the tnsnames.ora file for the net service
E. connecting by using a directory naming method
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
On your Oracle 12c database, you invoked SQL *Loader to load data into the EMPLOYEES table in the HR schema by issuing the following command: $andgt; sqlldr hr/hr@pdb table=employees
Which two statements are true regarding the command?
A. It succeeds with default settings if the EMPLOYEES table belonging to HR is already defined in the database.
B. It fails because no SQL *Loader data file location is specified.
C. It fails if the HR user does not have the CREATE ANY DIRECTORY privilege.
D. It fails because no SQL *Loader control file location is specified.
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:
Note:
* SQL*Loader is invoked when you specify the sqlldr command and, optionally, parameters that establish session characteristics.

QUESTION 13
Which task would you recommend before using the Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA) to upgrade a single-instance Oracle 11g R2 database to Oracle Database 12c?
A. shutting down the database instance that is being upgraded
B. executing the catctl.pl script to run the upgrade processes in parallel
C. running the Pre-Upgrade Information Tool
D. copying the listener.ora file to the new ORACLE_HOME
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which two statements are true about the use of the procedures listed in the v$sysaux_occupants.move_procedure column?
A. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data to the SYSAUX tablespace from its current tablespace.
B. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data from the SYSAUX tablespace to another tablespace.
C. All the components may be moved into SYSAUX tablespace.
D. All the components may be moved from the SYSAUX tablespace.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
Which two are prerequisites for performing a flashback transaction? 1Z0-062 dumps
A. Flashback Database must be enabled.
B. Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
C. EXECUTE privilege on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user flashing back transaction.
D. Supplemental logging must be enabled.
E. Recycle bin must be enabled for the database.
F. Block change tracking must be enabled tor the database.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 16
You configure your database Instance to support shared server connections.
Which two memory areas that are part of PGA are stored in SGA instead, for shared server connection?
A. User session data
B. Stack space
C. Private SQL area
D. Location of the runtime area for DML and DDL Statements
E. Location of a part of the runtime area for SELECT statements
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:
A: PGA itself is subdivided. The UGA (User Global Area) contains session state information, in- cluding stuff like package-level variables, cursor state, etc. Note that, with shar

QUESTION 17
Which three statements are true about SQL plan directives?
A. They are tied to a specific statement or SQL ID.
B. They instruct the maintenance job to collect missing statistics or perform dynamic sampling to generate a more optimal plan.
C. They are used to gather only missing statistics.
D. They are created for a query expression where statistics are missing or the cardinality estimates by the optimizer are incorrect.
E. They instruct the optimizer to create only column group statistics.
F. Improve plan accuracy by persisting both compilation and execution statistics in the SYSAUX tablespace.
Correct Answer: BDE

Explanation:
During SQL execution, if a cardinality misestimate occurs, then the database creates SQL plan directives. During SQL compilation, the optimizer examines the query corresponding t

QUESTION 18
Examine the parameter for your database instance:
1Z0-062 dumps
You generated the execution plan for the following query in the plan table and noticed that the nested loop join was done. After actual execution of the query, you notice that the hash join was done in the execution plan:
1Z0-062 dumps
Identify the reason why the optimizer chose different execution plans.
A. The optimizer used a dynamic plan for the query.
B. The optimizer chose different plans because automatic dynamic sampling was enabled.
C. The optimizer used re-optimization cardinality feedback for the query.
D. The optimizer chose different plan because extended statistics were created for the columns used.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
* optimizer_dynamic_sampling OPTIMIZER_DYNAMIC_SAMPLING controls both when the database gathers dynamic statistics, and the size of the sample that the optimizer uses to gather the

QUESTION 19
Examine the structure of the sales table, which is stored in a locally managed tablespace with Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.
1Z0-062 dumps
You want to perform online segment shrink to reclaim fragmented free space below the high water mark.
A. Row movement is enabled.
B. Referential integrity constraints for the table are disabled.
C. No queries are running on this table.
D. Extra disk space equivalent to the size of the segment is available in the tablespace.
E. No pending transaction exists on the table.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Your database supports a DSS workload that involves the execution of complex queries:
Currently, the library cache contains the ideal workload for analysis. You want to analyze some of the queries for an application that are cached in the library cache.
What must you do to receive recommendations about the efficient use of indexes and materialized views to improve query performance?
A. Create a SQL Tuning Set (STS) that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Tuning Advisor (STA) on the workload captured in the STS.
B. Run the Automatic Workload Repository Monitor (ADDM).
C. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA) on the workload captured in the STS.
D. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Access Advisor on the workload captured in the STS.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
* SQL Access Advisor is primarily responsible for making schema modification recommendations, such as adding or dropping indexes and materialized views.

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Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: CCP-V
Exam Name: Deploying Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions
Exam Code: 1Y0-301
Total Questions: 112 Q&As
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Useful Citrix CCP-V 1Y0-301 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
Which set of components and services are specific to the FlexCast Management Architecture (FMA)?
A. Citrix Studio, site database, Data Collector, Citrix Director
B. StoreFront, Delivery Controller, Citrix Studio, SQL High Availability
C. Virtual Delivery Agent, Delivery Controller, site database, Citrix Director
D. Local Host Cache, Citrix Studio, Delivery Controller, Virtual Delivery Agent
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A Citrix Engineer needs to configure a XenDesktop site; however, the engineer does NOT have permissions to access the SQL Server or the SQL database.
What should the engineer do to configure the new XenDesktop site?
A. Use an Access database instead of a SQL database.
B. Use the local administrator account for the Delivery Controller.
C. Ask a database administrator to enable mixed-mode authentication on the SQL database server and relaunch the site configuration wizard.
D. Generate a SQL database script during the creation of the site and ask a database administrator to run the script directly on the database designated for the new site.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A Citrix Engineer is in the process of setting up a remote access solution using self-signed certificates.
To help ensure a secure remote connection, the engineer must install a Root certificate on the __________ and __________. (Choose the two correct options to complete the sentence.)
A. endpoint device
B. StoreFront server
C. Domain Controllers
D. Delivery Controllers
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Scenario: Users of a corporate StoreFront deployment subscribe to their commonly used applications. A Citrix Engineer creates a second StoreFront deployment group; however when users connect to this deployment their subscribed application preferences are NOT retained.
How could the engineer ensure that the subscriptions are visible in the second deployment?
A. Configure subscription synchronization using PowerShell.
B. Edit the web.config file and include the other StoreFront deployment.
C. Ensure that the second StoreFront server group is in the trusted site zone.
D. Use a script to copy the c:\inetpub folders between all the StoreFront servers.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
In which two ways could a Citrix Engineer bind a certificate to a StoreFront server? (Choose two.)
A. Use the CertUtil.exe tool.
B. Use the IIS Management Console.
C. Run the ‘netsh http add sslcert’ command.
D. Use Cert Manager in Microsoft Management Console (MMC).
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Business Unit Manager requests Remote PC Access for a team of offshore developers. The Business Manager’s request indicates the need for a silent deployment with Citrix Receiver embedded and shadowing enabled. Desktop OS machines should NOT be restarted during the installation as a restart will be scheduled when convenient. The Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) must register initially with the Delivery Controller on the server named ‘Contr01’ in the domain ‘mydomain,’ and audio packets will flow over UDP. 1Y0-301 dumps HDX ports should be opened if the Windows Firewall service is detected.
Which command must a Citrix Engineer execute to install the VDA to meet the requirements stated in the scenario?
A. XenDesktopVdaSetup.exe /quiet
/components vda,plugins /controllers “Contr01.mydomain.local” /noreboot/enable_remote_assistance
B. XenDesktopVdaSetup.exe /quiet
/components vda /controllers “Contr01.mydomain.local” /enable_hdx_ports /enable_real_time_transport /noreboot
C. XenDesktopVdaSetup.exe /quiet
/components vda /controllers “Contr01.mydomain.local” /enable_hdx_ports /enable_real_time_transport /noreboot /enable_remote_management
D. XenDesktopVdaSetup.exe /quiet
/components vda,plugins /controllers “Contr01.mydomain.local” /enable_hdx_ports /enable_real_time_transport /noreboot /enable_remote_assistance
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to create a device collection for new target devices in the Provisioning Services Console, as part of a pooled-random deployment. However, the XenDesktop Administrator is NOT ready for the machine catalog to be added to the XenDesktop site yet.
Which wizard should the engineer use to create the device collection and allow the machine catalog to be added later?
A. Auto-Add Wizard
B. XenDesktop Setup Wizard
C. Streamed VM Setup Wizard
D. Provisioning Services Configuration Wizard
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A Citrix Engineer needs to restart the __________ after enabling offline database support in the Provisioning Services Console. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. SQL Service
B. target devices
C. DHCP Service
D. Stream Service
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to configure iSCSI based shared storage for XenServer with multi-pathing. The iSCSI SAN has two targets: one on subnet 10.10.10.x and one on subnet 10.10.20.x.
How should the engineer configure iSCSI-based shared storage for XenServer with multi- pathing?
A. Create two virtual private networks.
B. Create management interfaces on each storage subnet.
C. Create VLAN tagging on two NICs attached to the iSCSI networks.
D. Create a bonded network for bonded NICs across all storage subnets.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which PowerShell cmdlet will reset StoreFront to the initial factory settings once the StoreFront server is removed from an existing server group?
A. Clear-DSConfiguration
B. Clear-WebConfiguration
C. Remove-SFServiceMetadata
D. Remove-SFServerFromCluster
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer set Desktop Composition Redirection to ‘Enabled’ in a policy within Citrix Studio and filtered the policy by virtual desktops. Desktop Composition Redirection is set to ‘Disabled’ in a group policy object (GPO) applied to the organizational unit (OU) containing all virtual desktops.
What will be the resultant effect of these two policies on the virtual desktops they are applied to?
A. The two policies will cancel each other out, leaving the desktops with the default settings.
B. The policy assigned to the OU will take precedence and Desktop Composition Redirection will be disabled.
C. The Unfiltered policy will take precedence over the conflicting policies, leaving the desktops with the default settings.
D. The policy assigned in Citrix Studio will apply as it takes precedence over OU policies and Desktop Composition Redirection is enabled.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to configure Citrix Receiver auto-discovery. The company has the following standard for all users.
SMTP: User@Mail.MyCompany.com
UPN: User@AD.MyCompany.com
URL: https://Citrix.MyCompany.com
Which two pieces of information should the engineer use to create the SRV record in DNS? (Choose two.)
A. Domain=AD.MyCompany.com
B. srv host=AD.MyCompany.com
C. Domain=Mail.MyCompany.com
D. srv host=Mail.MyCompany.com
E. srv host=Citrix.MyCompany.com
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 13
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer has configured and enabled Citrix Profile Management policies for a new environment. The engineer’s organization uses a third-party system that employs user certificates as part of its authentication mechanism. The engineer must provide a solution to retain user certificate information.
Which directory should the engineer add to synchronize settings?
A. Application Data\Local\Microsoft\vault
B. Application Data\Roaming\Microsoft\credentials
C. Application Data\Local\Microsoft\Internet Explorer
D. Application Data\Microsoft\SystemCertificates\My
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to configure external access to resources hosted on Server OS machines. The engineer has configured a NetScaler GatewayvServer and bound a certificate for portal.mycompany.com. On the StoreFront server the engineer specified the callback URL of https://portal.mycompany.com/CitrixAuthService/AuthService.asmx.
NetScaler IP = 192.168.1.2
Subnet IP = 192.168.1.3
NetScaler Gateway VIP = 192.168.1.4
StoreFront VIP = 192.168.1.5
The engineer needs to validate that the portal.mycompany.com address resolves to __________ and that the certificate bound to __________ is trusted by the StoreFront server. (Choose the correct set of options to complete the sentence.)
A. 192.168.1.2; mycompany.com
B. 192.168.1.5; mycompany.com
C. 192.168.1.3; portal.mycompany.com
D. 192.168.1.4; portal.mycompany.com
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Machine catalogs may __________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. only be mapped to one Delivery Group
B. be assigned to an Active Directory group
C. only contain one type of operating system
D. contain a mix of image management methods
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
1Y0-301 dumps Which step can a Citrix Engineer take to reduce logon times when using Citrix Profile Management?
A. Use offline files
B. Use Personal vDisk
C. Disable profile streaming
D. Implement folder redirection
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which two statements are true about Remote PC Access? (Choose two.)
A. Users may only access one desktop at a time using Remote PC Access.
B. Remote PC Access could only be selected during the initial installation of XenDesktop.
C. Multiple users could log on to the same desktop using Remote PC Access at the same time.
D. Each desktop used for Remote PC Access needs to be joined to a domain with a wired connection.
E. Desktops configured for Remote PC Access could be added to an existing XenDesktop environment.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 18
A Citrix Engineer needs to restrict access to an application so it can only be accessed from external connections.
Where should the engineer go to configure this restriction?
A. StoreFront: External Access
B. Delivery Group: Access policy
C. Citrix Studio: Citrix Security policy
D. NetScaler Gateway: Session policy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two statements are true regarding what is required when adding a new XenServer host to a heterogeneous XenServer resource pool? (Choose two.)
A. The host hardware must be identical.
B. The CPU of the joining host must support hyper-threading.
C. The server joining the pool is running the same version of XenServer and hotfixes.
D. The features of the older CPUs must be a sub-set of the features of the CPUs of the server joining the pool.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 20
Where could a Citrix Engineer check which virtual channels are active in a user session?
A. Citrix Studio
B. Citrix Director
C. Resource Monitor
D. NetScaler Insight Center
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSA
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 70-417
Total Questions: 451 Q&As

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Best Microsoft MCSA 70-417 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q10)

QUESTION 1
Your network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 10 domain controllers and a read-only domain controller (RODC) named RODC01.
You plan to replace a domain controller named DC1. DC1 has the schema operations master role.
You need to transfer the schema master role to another domain controller named DC10 before you remove Active Directory from DC1.
Which tool should you use?
A. the ntdsutil command
B. the Set-ADDomain cmdlet
C. the Install-ADDSDomain cmdlet
D. the dsadd command
E. the dsamain command
F. the dsmgmt command
G. the net user command
H. the Set-ADForest cmdlet
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
To transfer the schema master role using the command line:
Open Command Prompt.
Type:
ntdsutil
At the ntdsutil command prompt, type:
roles
At the fsmo maintenance command prompt, type:
connection
At the server connections command prompt, type:
connect to serverDomainController
At the server connections command prompt, type:
quit
At the fsmo maintenance command prompt, type:
transfer schema master
Reference: Transfer the schema master role

QUESTION 2
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You create a custom Data Collector Set (DCS) named DCS1. You need to configure DCS1 to meet the following requirements:
Automatically run a program when the amount of total free disk space on Server1 drops below 10 percent of capacity.
Log the current values of several registry settings.
Which two should you configure in DCS1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. System configuration information
B. A Performance Counter Alert
C. Event trace data
D. A performance counter
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You create an Active Directory snapshot of DC1 each day.
You need to view the contents of an Active Directory snapshot from two days ago.
What should you do first?
A. Start the Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS).
B. Run the dsamain.exe command.
C. Run the ntdsutil.exe command.
D. Stop the Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) service.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Mounting an Active Directory snapshot
Before connecting to the snapshot we need to mount it. By looking at the results of the List All command in step #8 above, identify the snapshot that you wish to mount, and note the number next to it.
In order to mount an Active Directory snapshot follow these steps:
Log on as a member of the Domain Admins group to one of your Windows Server 2008 Domain Controllers.
Open a Command Prompt window by clicking on the CMD shortcut in the Start menu, or by typing CMD and pressing Enter in the Run or Quick Search parts of the Start menu. Note: You must run NTDSUTIL from an elevated command prompt. To open an elevated command prompt, click Start, right-click Command Prompt, and then click Run as administrator.
In the CMD window, type the following command:
ntdsutil
In the CMD window, type the following command:
snapshot
To view all available snapshots, in the CMD window, type the following command:
list all The result should look like this:
snapshot: List All
1: 2008/10/25:03:14 {ec53ad62-8312-426f-8ad4-d47768351c9a}
2: C: {15c6f880-cc5c-483b-86cf-8dc2d3449348}
In this example we only have one snapshot available, one from 2008/10/25 at 03:14AM (yes, I write articles at this time…). We’ll mount this one.
In the CMD window, type the following command:
mount 2
The result should look like this:
snapshot: mount 2
Snapshot {15c6f880-cc5c-483b-86cf-8dc2d3449348} mounted as
C:’$SNAP_200810250314_VOLUMEC$’
Next, you can leave the NTDSUTIL running, or you can quit by typing quit 2 times. Note: Like the above command, the mounting process can also be run in one line.
However, note that
NTDSUTIL requires that the “list all” command be run in the same session that you mount the snapshot. So in order to mount the snapshot with a one-liner, you will need to run “list all” first.
ntdsutil snapshot “list all” “mount 2” quit quit
Note: You do not need to quit from the NTDSUTIL command, you can keep it open assuming that you’ll probably want to unmount the snapshot right after working with it.

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server3 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed.
DHCP is configured as shown in the exhibit. 70-417 dumps (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to ensure that only Scope1, Scope3, and Scope5 assign the same DNS servers to DHCP clients. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Create a superscope and a filter.
B. Create a superscope and scope-level policies.
C. Configure the Server Options.
D. Configure the Scope Options.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Remote Desktop Session Host role service installed. The computer account of Server1 resides in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You create and link a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 to OU1. GPO1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to prevent GPO1 from applying to your user account when you log on to Server1. GPO1 must apply to every other user who logs on to Server1.
What should you configure?
A. Item-level targeting
B. Security Filtering
C. Block Inheritance
D. WMI Filtering
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation: Security filtering is a way of refining which users and computers will receive and apply the settings in a Group Policy object (GPO). Using security filtering, you can specify that only certain security principals within a container where the GPO is linked apply the GPO. Security group filtering determines whether the GPO as a whole applies to groups, users, or computers; it cannot be used selectively on different settings within a GPO.

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named HVServer1. HVServer1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed.
HVServer1 hosts two virtual machines named Server1 and Server2. Both virtual machines connect to a virtual switch named Switch1.
On Server2, you install a network monitoring application named App1.
You need to capture all of the inbound and outbound traffic to Server1 by using App1.
Which two commands should you run from Windows PowerShell? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Get-VM “Server2” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -IovWeight 1
B. Get-VM “Server1” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -Allow/Teaming On
C. Get-VM “Server1” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -PortMirroring Source
D. Get-VM “Server2” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -PortMirroring Destination
E. Get-VM “Server1” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -IovWeight 0
F. Get-VM “Server2” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter-AllowTeaming On
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:
Explanation: Note:
* Get-VM will get the virtual machines from one or more Hyper-V hosts.
-ComputerName<String[]> is used to specify one or more Hyper-V hosts from which virtual machines are to be retrieved. NetBIOS names, IP addresses, and fully-qualified domain names are allowable. The default is the local computer — use
“localhost” or a dot (“.”) to specify the local computer explicitly.
* Set-VMNetworkAdapter is used to configure features of the virtual network adapter in a virtual machine or the management operating system.
-PortMirroring<VMNetworkAdapterPortMirroringMode> is used to specify the port mirroring mode for the network adapter to be configured.
With Port Mirroring, traffic sent to or from a Hyper-V Virtual Switch port is copied and sent to a mirror port. There are a range of applications for port mirroring – an entire ecosystem of network visibility companies exist that have products designed to consume port mirror data for performance management, security analysis, and network diagnostics. With Hyper-V Virtual Switch port mirroring, you can select the switch ports that are monitored as well as the switch port that receives copies of all the traffic.

QUESTION 7
You have a VHD that contains an image of Windows Server 2012 R2. You plan to Apply updates to the image.
You need to ensure that only updates that can install without requiring a restart are installed.
Which DISM option should you use?
A. /Apply-Unattend
B. /Add-ProvisionedAppxPackage
C. /PreventPending
D. /Cleanup-Image
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012. 70-417 dumps
You create a group Managed Service Account named gservice1.
You need to configure a service named Service1 to run as the gservice1 account.
How should you configure Service1?
A. From a command prompt, run sc.exe and specify the config parameter.
B. From a command prompt, run sc.exe and specify the sdset parameter.
C. From the Services console, configure the General settings.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run Set-Service and specify the -PassThrough parameter.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
To specify a binary path for the NEWSERVICE service, type:
sc config NewService binpath= “ntsd -d c:\windows\system32\NewServ.exe”

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed.
You need to log the amount of system resources used by each virtual machine.
What should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Enable-VMResourceMeteringcmdlet.
B. From Windows System Resource Manager, enable Accounting.
C. From Windows System Resource Manager, add a resource allocation policy.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Measure-VM cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The Enable-VMResourceMeteringcmdlet collects resource utilization data for a virtual machine or resource pool.

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You mount an Active Directory snapshot on DC1.
You need to expose the snapshot as an LDAP server.
Which tool should you use?
A. Dsamain
B. Ntdsutil
C. Ldp
D. ADSI Edit
Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Dsamain.exe can you can use to expose the snapshot data as an LDAP server

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Certifications: CCNA Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0
Exam Code: 210-065
Total Questions: 311 Q&As

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New Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 Dumps Exam Practice Questions & Answers (11-40)

QUESTION 11
Which two codecs are supported on the Cisco Video Surveillance 6400E IP Camera? (Choose two.)
A. H.263
B. H.264
C. H.265
D. VP8
E. G.711
F. MP3
G. G.729
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
A video engineer has opened a ticket with Cisco TAC for support and the TAC engineer has requested system information such as software version of Cisco VCS. Where does the video engineer find this information?
A. System
B. Maintenance
C. Configuration
D. Status
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
How does a Cisco TCS process incoming video calls?
A. Recording Alias andgt; Template andgt; Media Server Configuration
B. Recording Alias andgt; Media Server Configuration andgt; Template
C. Recording Alias andgt; Media Server Configuration andgt; H.323 andgt; Template
D. Recording Alias andgt; Workflow andgt; Template andgt; Media Server Configuration
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Which configuration element can be used to specify the Multiway address that can be used by the endpoint to initiate Multiway calls?
A. Conference 1
B. NetworkServices
C. Provisioning
D. SIP Profile 1
E. Video
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which statement is correct regarding the difference between Multisite and Multiway conferencing?
A. Multisite requires configuration on the endpoint, whereas Multiway requires the Multiway options key to be installed.
B. Multisite requires the presence of a multipoint control unit, whereas Multiway relies on the endpoint conferencing capability.
C. Multisite is used to conference in multiple sites, whereas Multiway is intrasite multipoint conferencing.
D. Multisite requires the Multisite options key to be installed and configured at the endpoint, whereas Multiway requires a Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server and a centralized multipoint control unit.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
What is the correct order of steps to schedule a One Button to Push conference call between a Cisco TelePresence System 500 and a Cisco TelePresence Codec C40?
A. Configure the One Button to Push field under device configuration for the Cisco TelePresence System 500 and Codec C40.
B. Configure One Button to Push under Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server andgt; Applications andgt; OBTP Configuration.
C. Configure a new conference under Cisco TelePresence Management Suite andgt; Booking New Conference andgt; Type.
D. The One Button to Push feature cannot be configured without a scheduling plug-in application such as Microsoft Outlook.
E. Configure the Scheduler tool in the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Management would like to find out when a particular multipoint control unit feature was enabled and who enabled it.
210-065 dumps Which menu option is the most appropriate when searching for that information?
A. Event Display Filter
B. Audit Log
C. Event Log
D. Syslog
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your customer has an EX60 at a home-office that is doing direct H.323 dialing. When they place calls to remote sites, they report that they cannot see video or hear audio from the remote sites. What is most likely the cause of this issue?
A. NAT mode is not configured on the EX60.
B. The HDMI cable that connects the EX60 to the monitor is not plugged in.
C. A username and password must be configured on the EX60.
D. QoS is not properly configured on the EX60.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Which tab can be used in order to check the call statistics for the Cisco TelePresence Codec C60?
A. Diagnostics
B. Configuration
C. Call Control
D. Maintenance
E. The GUI cannot be used to view call statistics.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which video-room solution supports internal and external microphones for audio transmission at the same time?
A. MX300G2
B. SX80
C. SpeakerTrack60
D. C90
E. Jabber for Windows
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Acoustic measurements for ambient noise were taken on a candidate for an Immersive Cisco TelePresence room. The numbers on the floor plan represent the dBA readings for each of the six areas of the room.
Considering Cisco best practices, what can you conclude about the current acoustic situation in the room?
A. Only one area is within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
B. Only one area is not within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
C. All areas are within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
D. Two areas are within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which three standards are supported for streaming live video on Cisco TCS? (Choose three.)
A. H.265
B. H.261
C. H.264
D. H.263
E. H.262
F. H.270
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 23
A customer wants to purchase a video endpoint that supports a touchscreen control. The engineer recommends a Cisco TelePresence MX300 endpoint. Which information about this endpoint should the engineer tell the customer?
A. The endpoint comes with the 8-inch touchscreen by default. You can purchase the 10- inch touchscreen with an additional cost.
B. The endpoint comes with the 8-inch touchscreen by default. You do not have the option to purchase the 10-inch touchscreen.
C. You can purchase the endpoint with either the 8-inch touchscreen or the 10-inch touchscreen. You need an additional option key for the 10-inch touchscreen.
D. The endpoint comes with the 10-inch touchscreen by default. You do not have the option to purchase the endpoint with the 8-inch touchscreen.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
A user is unable to make a video call from an endpoint that is registered to the Cisco VCS. To isolate the cause, which two menu choices should the user check first? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration andgt; Call Policy
B. Status andgt; Registrations
C. Status andgt; Search History
D. Status andgt; System Information
E. Configuration andgt; Dial Plan andgt; Search Rules
F. Status andgt; Event Log
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 25
Which of these involves combining visual elements from separate sources into a single image?
A. interlacing
B. compositing
C. video conferencing
D. interleaving
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in the same network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
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When the Cisco Jabber usertries to call extension 3501, Cisco Jabber never places the call No errors or messages are seen and no reordertone is heard. 210-065 dumps Assuming that the Cisco Jabber calling search space is configured correctly in Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which of these could be causing this issue?
A. CTI for the end user must be enabled.
B. Cisco Jabber must be reconfigured for desktop mode.
C. The username or password is misconfigured in Cisco Jabber.
D. The Cisco Jabber Advanced Phone Settings are misconfigured.
E. Cisco Jabber does not have the correct phone button template and hence has not registered to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
F. The called user presence status is unknown.
G. The called user has not been added as a contact in Cisco Jabber.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
A customer requests a configuration that enables users to easily add a third party to an existing call. The environment contains only three Cisco TelePresence C40 codecs and one Cisco VCS. To achieve the customer\’s requirements, which feature should be added?
A. Cisco MultiWay
B. Cisco TelePresence Conductor
C. Cisco TMS
D. Cisco Multisite
E. Cisco VCS Expressway
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
A customer reports that in a CTS1300 room, a microphone switches to a segment that has no one talking. Which step is first in the troubleshooting process?
A. Replace the microphones to stop phantom switching.
B. Reseat the microphone cables.
C. Recalibrate the microphones.
D. Reboot the codec.
E. Replace the audio expansion box because the microphones connect to an AV expansion box.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Which codec represents video that is supported by Cisco TelePresence endpoints?
A. H.263
B. H.323
C. H.264
D. H.262
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which CLI command must be used to configure the network settings on a Cisco TelePresence 4500 MCU?
A. Static A andlt;IP addressandgt; andlt;netmaskandgt; [andlt;default gateway addressandgt;]
B. Network ipandlt;ip addressandgt;andlt;netmaskandgt;andlt;default gatewayandgt;andlt;DNS server addressandgt;
C. Xconfig network addressandlt;ip addressandgt;andlt;netmaskandgt;andlt;default gatewayandgt;
D. Xconfig network addressandlt;ip addressandgt;andlt;netmaskandgt;andlt;default gatewayandgt;andlt;DNS server addressandgt;
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which three of these are valid ways to initially configure a C-Series codec in a network where DHCP is not used? (Choose three.)
A. Tandberg Remote Control V
B. secure copy program
C. CLI using a console cable
D. touchscreen interface
E. secure web browser
F. Telnet
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 33
A Cisco engineer needs to provide digital media for the lobby of a company. Which Cisco Digital Media component should the engineer use?
A. Cisco Cast
B. Cisco Digital Signs
C. Cisco DMP
D. Cisco Show and Share
E. Cisco IP TV
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
An end user is in Cisco TelePresence session with a remote participant and can control the camera at the remote endpoint. Which feature is underlying in this scenario?
A. FEC
B. DTMF
C. FECC
D. PIP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Threat monitoring in physical access security can be based upon which three of these? (Choose three.)
A. doors
B. badges
C. age
D. weather
E. height
F. fingerprints
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 36
Which CLI command can be used to reset the Cisco TelePresence System 500-32 personal video system to a factory condition?
A. utils factory reset 2
B. utils system factory init
C. xcommand defaultvalues set level: 2
D. xconfiguration default factory
E. utils reset factory
F. xcommand SystemUnit FactoryReset
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
When you register the Cisco TelePresence System 500-32 video system with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, what is the most important item for the registration to be input into the server?
A. the IPv4 address of the Cisco TelePresence System 500-32
B. the IP telephone media access control address that is used to manage the system
C. the media access control address of the Ethernet port of the Cisco TelePresence System 500-32
D. The Cisco TelePresence System 500-32 will always automatically register with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
Which three features does Cisco VCS provide? 210-065 dumps (Choose three.)
A. native Cisco SCCP telephony integration
B. SIP-H.323 interworking functionality
C. native scheduling
D. SIP trunk integration with Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. third-party standards-based H.323 and SIP device registration
F. reverse proxy functionality
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 39
When connecting to a pan-tilt-zoom camera to a C-Series codec, what type of cable must be used for camera control?
A. an Ethernet crossover cable (RJ45-to-RJ45)
B. an Ethernet cable (RJ45-to-RJ45)
C. a serial cable (DB25-to-DB9)
D. a VISCA cable (DB9-to-RJ45)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
An H.323 endpoint that is registered to Cisco VCS Control is not able to make B2B calls. Calls to other internal endpoints are working fine. What is the likely cause of the issue?
A. The Conductor H.323 zone is set to andquot;Off.andquot;
B. The Traversal Zone H.323 zone is set to andquot;Off.andquot;
C. The Production CUCM H.323 zone is set to andquot;Off.andquot;
D. The Traversal Zone H.323 zone is in a andquot;Failedandquot; state.
Correct Answer: B

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640-916 dumps

Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-916 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which two Cisco Nexus 2000-Series Fabric Extenders support connections to both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 2248TP
B. Cisco Nexus 2248TP-E
C. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
D. Cisco Nexus 2232TM
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum number of Cisco ACE GSS 4400 Series Appliances that can be part of a highavailability mesh?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 4
D. 3
E. 12
F. 14
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An administrator connected a new server to a Cisco MDS 9222i on Port FCL/20, but did not capture the world wide node name of the host bus adapter. Which command returns the needed information?
A. show flogi database
B. show fcns database
C. show fcs database
D. show wwn status
E. show interface fc 1/20
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
640-916 dumps
Which two pieces of configuration information about interface Ethernet 1/10 can the engineer determine? (Choose two.)
A. It runs at 10 Gbps.
B. It is part of a logical port channel interface.
C. It is configured as a point-to-point interface.
D. It is administratively down.
E. It uses a nonstandard MTU size.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
A user is trying to create a new VDC in NX-OS in global configurations mode, but receives an error message. 640-916 dumps What issue prevents the user from creating Virtual Device Contexts?
A. The user is not granted Super User role permissions.
B. VDCs cannot be created in NX-OS.
C. The user is not a member of VDC Power Admin group.
D. VDCs are not created under interface configurations mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which Cisco Nexus 1000V component is the equivalent of a line card on a standard Cisco Nexus switch?
A. Virtual Ethernet Module
B. Virtual Supervisor Module
C. Virtual Service Blade
D. Virtual Security Gateway
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which is the maximum number of active zone sets on Cisco MDS 9500 Series Fibre Channel Switches?
A. 1 with all licenses
B. 2 with Standard Zoning license
C. 3 with Enhanced Zoning license
D. 4 with Enterprise Zoning license
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which command pings from the Cisco Nexus 5548 interface mgmt 0 to host 10.10.1.1?
A. ping -m 10.10.1.1
B. ping 10.10.1.1 -m
C. ping 10.10.1.1 vrf management
D. ping 10.10.1.1 vrf default
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What native Fibre Channel technology facilitates connecting multiple Fibre Channel devices behind a single FC address?
A. N-Port Virtualization
B. N-Port Identification Virtualization
C. Fibre Channel Arbitrary Loop
D. Fiber Channel over Ethernet
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
640-916 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has configured a primary fabric interconnect with this configuration. Which two pieces of information are needed to guarantee high availability and fail over for the secondary fabric interconnect for the cluster? (Choose two.)
A. Cisc0123!
B. 10.10.10.10
C. 10.10.10.1
D. 10.10.10.16
E. 10.0.10.25
F. Fabric-A
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
Which three are characteristics of the SAN core-edge design? (Choose three.)
A. few devices to manage
B. deterministic latency
C. lower oversubscription
D. fewer ISLs
E. easy to analyze and tune performance
F. cost-effective for large SANs
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 12
Which SAN Fabric technology is used to restrict access between initiators and targets?
A. zoning
B. VSANs
C. LUN masking
D. LUN mapping
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which three are benefits of virtual machines? (Choose three.)
A. dedicated LAN NIC
B. dedicated SAN HBA
C. resource partitioning
D. hardware abstraction
E. virtual machine isolation
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 14
Which four components are parts of the Cisco Data Center Nexus switching offering? 640-916 dumps (Choose four.)
A. Cisco 6000 Series Switch
B. Cisco ASR 9000
C. Cisco 1000v Switch
D. Cisco IOS Software
E. Cisco 4500E Switch
F. Cisco NX-OS Software
G. Cisco 6509-E Switch
H. Cisco Fabric Extender
Correct Answer: ACFH

QUESTION 15
A network architecture team is looking for a technology on Cisco Nexus switches that significantly simplifies extending Layer 2 applications across distributed data centers. The team wants the Cisco Data Center Interconnect between sites and without changing or reconfiguring the existing network design.
Which technology should be used?
A. Multiprotocol Label Switching
B. Cisco FabricPath
C. virtual switching system
D. virtual port channel
E. Overlay Transport Virtualization
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
640-916 dumps
In this FCoE topology, which two ports are VE ports? (Choose two.)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
F. F
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 17
In a Cisco Nexus 7009 switch with three N7K-F248XP-25E modules, what is the minimum number of Fabric-2 modules needed to support full utilization of all the installed ports?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
What are two purposes of VIFs in Data Center Unified Fabric? (Choose two.)
A. VIF can be used to virtually present NICs to the operating system
B. VIF is created when interconnecting Catalyst switches to Nexus switches
C. FEX modules can be connected to Nexus parent switches through VIF
D. VIF can be used to directly attach virtual machines with a Unified Computing System
E. VIF creates multiple switch instances inside a VDC
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
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QUESTION 20
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QUESTION 21
Which two are configuration elements selected during initial setup of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet bits
B. SNMPv3 community strings
C. VDC mode
D. Default interface layer
E. Default interface state
F. CoPP
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 22
Which three are required components of a Cisco Nexus 1000V deployment? 640-916 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Adapter FEX
B. Virtual Ethernet Module
C. Virtual Fibre Channel Module
D. Virtual Supervisor Module
E. License key
F. VM-Fex
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 23
The marketing, research, and business departments of a company each have servers and storage in the SAN fabric connected to a Cisco MDS switch. The storage engineer is asked to ensure that each department’s servers and storage are isolated from the other departments. Which two steps can the engineer take to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Create VSAN 10, 11, and 12 on the MDS switch.
B. Add marketing devices to VSAN 10, research to VSAN 11, and business to VSAN 12.
C. Create VSAN 10 on the MDS switch.
D. Add marketing, research, and business devices to VSAN 10.
E. Create VSAN 10 and VSAN 11.
F. Add all storage devices to VSAN 10. Add all server devices to VSAN 11.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 24
Which two options are two functions of the data center core layer? (Choose two.)
A. manages access control and policy
B. enables routing between VLANs
C. creates separate collision domains
D. acts as a high speed egress point
E. implements security policy
F. provides a resilient Layer 3 routed fabric
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 25
An engineer is configuring a server for storage connectivity using a Cisco MDS switch. The engineer connects the server to the switch, powers up the server, and then wants to verify that the server has logged into the fabric. Which command does the engineer use to verify fabric login?
A. show flogi database
B. show vsan database
C. show interface
D. show zoneset active
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which five Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VMware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose five.)
A. private VLANs
B. port state migration
C. access control lists
D. port security
E. SPAN
F. ERSPAN
G. QoS marking
Correct Answer: CDEFG

QUESTION 27
Which interface provides heartbeat messages between the VSM and VEM?
A. control
B. management
C. packet
D. backplane
E. SVI
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
What is the purpose of the Destination VIF field in the VNTag header?
A. identify the physical satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender
B. identify the virtual satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender
C. identify the physical satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch
D. identify the fabric port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
A network engineer needs to add four native Fibre Channel ports to a pair of UCS fabric interconnects.
What two items would be the result of the engineer configuring four universal ports in the fabric interconnect expansion card for storage mode and selecting apply? 640-916 dumps (Choose two.)
A. The fabric interconnect port module reboots.
B. The fabric interconnect reboots.
C. The ports immediately transition to storage ports.
D. The ports are reconfigured as Fibre Channel storage ports.
E. The ports are reconfigured as Fibre Channel host adapter ports.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
Which two are valid block-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
E. NFS
F. CIFS
Correct Answer: CD

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300-160 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two statements about Fibre Channel over IP are true? (Choose two.)
A. FCIP links consist of a maximum of one TCP connection between two FCIP link endpoints.
B. Each FCIP link carries encapsulated FCoE frames.
C. The FCIP link is established between two peers, and the VE Port initialization behavior is identical to a normal E Port.
D. The FCIP profile contains information about the local IP address and TCP parameters.
E. The local IP address of the FCIP profile is the IP address of the management interface of the Cisco MDS switch.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
Which option describes the default predictor on ACE to select the best server to fulfill a client request?
A. the hash cookie, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on a cookie name
B. least bandwidth, which selects the server that processed the least amount of network traffic
C. round robin, which selects the next server in the list of real servers
D. the hash DNS, which selects the server using a hash value that is based on FQDN
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
The Cisco Nexus 1000v Series switches can configure traditional SPAN sessions. Which three statements about the local SPAN source ports are true? (Choose three.)
A. It can be configured to monitor the direction of the traffic.
B. It must be in the same VSAN.
C. It can be port type Ethernet, virtual Ethernet, or port channel.
D. It must be in the same VLAN.
E. It cannot be on a different host VEM as the destination port.
F. It cannot be a port profile.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 4
Which statements are true regarding the Cisco UCS fabric failover feature? 300-160 dumps (Choose three.)
A. FabricSync is used to synchronize MAC addresses to an adjacent fabric interconnect after a server interface failover.
B. Gratuitous ARPs are sent on fabric interconnect uplinks after a server interface failover.
C. Fabric failover can be used on vNICs and vHBAs.
D. Fabric failover is configured as part of the service profile.
E. Fabric interconnects in end-host mode use fabric failover instead of spanning tree to provide redundancy on uplink ports.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 5
What is the main function of the device-alias distribute command?
A. This command distributes the device alias configuration on the existing switch to all the other switches in the Cisco Fabric Services region.
B. This command enables distribution and will send the configuration after a commit is executed.
C. This command changes the distribution mode for device aliases.
D. There is no such command.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You plan to add a new VLAN to your updating service profile template. Assuming that the default maintenance policy is configured, which statement about applying this change is true?
A. The change will be applied immediately once the blade is rebooted.
B. The change will be deferred until the user acknowledges.
C. The change will be applied immediately with no disruption to any bound service profiles.
D. The change will generate an impact summary message.
E. The change will require all bound service profiles to be unbound.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What is the default FSPF cost of a port channel that consists of four 2-Gb/s links, with one link down because of an error?
A. 500
B. 166
C. 250
D. 125
E. 100
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
KAL-AP on the Cisco ACE allows communication with Cisco ACE Global Site Selector, to report virtual IP and real server availability. Which statement is true about KAL-AP?
A. It is a Cisco propriety keepalive.
B. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP entries.
C. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP keepalives.
D. It is used for both Cisco and non-cisco load balancers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which option describes how you would guarantee 30 percent of available bandwidth on interface 1/4?
A. Issue the bandwidth percent 30 command after the interface ethernet1/4 command.
B. Issue the bandwidth percent 30 command after the class best-effort-drop-class command.
C. Issue the bandwidth percentage 30 command after the policy-map policy1-egress command.
D. Issue the bandwidth percentage 30 command after the class best-effort-drop-class command.
E. Bandwidth guarantees are not permitted on output policies.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
ACE can check the health of servers and server farms by configuring health probes (sometimes referred to as keepalives). There are several types of probes.
Which three options are valid ACE probes? (Choose three.)
A. TCP
B. ICMP
C. HTTP
D. IPsec
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 11
Which statement about NPV on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches is true? 300-160 dumps
A. By default, Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches operate in NPV mode. In this mode, the switch providesstandard Fibre Channel switching.
B. In NPV mode, each switch that joins a SAN is assigned a domain ID. Each SAN (or VSAN) supports amaximum of 239 domain IDs, so the SAN has a limit of 239 switches.
C. In NPV mode, the edge switch relays all traffic from server-side sports to the core switch. The core switchprovides TE Port functionality to the downstream NPV switch.
D. In NPV mode, the edge switch appears as a Fibre Channel host to the core switch and as a regular FibreChannel switch to its connected devices.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
The OTV overlay interface is a logical multiaccess and multicast-capable interface that must be explicitly defined by the user, and is the location where the entire OTV configuration is applied. Which two statements about the OTV overlay interface are true? (Choose two.)
A. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame that is destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the overlay interface.
B. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the join interface toward the routed domain.
C. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame that is destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the join interface.
D. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the overlay interface toward the routed domain.
E. The OTV edge device performs the static OTV encapsulation on the Layer 3 packet and sends it to the join interface toward the switching domain.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series implementation has two main components. Which two components together make up the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch? (Choose two.)
A. virtual supervisor module
B. virtual Ethernet module
C. virtual machine NICs
D. virtual machine kernel NICs
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Which three statements about the configuration of vPC+ are true? (Choose three.)
A. The FabricPath switch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.
B. The virtual switch ID of vPC+ must be configured under the FabricPath domain.
C. On the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch, F1 interfaces must be used as the vPC+ peer links.
D. The vPC+ peer link must be configured as a Cisco FabricPath core port.
E. The FabricPath subswitch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.
F. There has to be atleast 4 virtual switches in the FabricPath domain.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 15
What does the mac packet-classify command do when applied to an interface configuration?
A. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only IP packets that enter the interface.
B. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only non-IP packets that enter the interface.
C. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to all packets that enter the interface.
D. It enables MAC ACLs to be used for QoS settings.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Cisco UCS provides integration interfaces and protocols to support heterogeneous data center environments and supports standard monitoring and eventnotification systems, providing data to standard enterprise-management tools. 300-160 dumps
Which two of these lists the primary Cisco UCS interfaces and industry standard-based read-only interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. UCS Manager XML API and UCS CLI
B. SNMP, SMASH CLP, and CIM-XML
C. UCS Manager, DCOS, and Local-mgmt
D. SoL and NX-OS
E. debug-plugin and UCS Manager GUI
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
When testing ICMP access to a functional load-balancing ACE VIP, it fails. What is the reason of this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The interface is shut down
B. An access list is denying ICMP
C. Routing is not configured properly
D. vip icmp-reply is inactive
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
On a Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS), which two statements regarding Ethanalyzer are true? (Choose two.)
A. Interface inbound-low handles Rx and Tx of low-priority control packet
B. Interface inbound-lo handles Rx and Tx of high-priority control packet
C. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth3
D. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth4
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
Which two statements about enhanced zoning are true? (Choose two.)
A. Enhanced zoning is a mode that shows much more detail for the SAN choices when it is viewed in Fabric Manager.
B. Enhanced zoning cannot be enabled per VSAN. It is a chassis-wide setting.
C. Enhanced zoning sets the default zone to the same state in all switches.
D. Enhanced zoning cannot be enabled in an FCoE environment.
E. Enhanced zoning sends ACA to lock the fabric when the administrator starts a zone change.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 20
In a FabricPath topology, each device is identified by a switch ID, and all Layer 2 forwarding tables are built based on the reachability of the switch ID. Which protocol is used to assign the switch ID?
A. No protocol is used. The switch ID is always assigned manually.
B. The Dynamic Resource Allocation Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.
C. The Switch ID Assignment Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.
D. The switch ID is assigned based on the system ID of the device.
Correct Answer: B

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[Best Cisco Real Dumps] Useful Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 Dumps Exam Questions And Youtube Demo Free Shared https://www.certpub.com/useful-cisco-ccna-wireless-200-355-dumps/ Tue, 26 Dec 2017 01:43:43 +0000 https://www.certpub.com/?p=235 The best and most updated useful Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 dumps exam training materials free download from lead4pass. Useful Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo update free shared. “Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals” is the name of Cisco CCNA Wireless https://www.lead4pass.com/200-355.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of […]

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200-355 dumps
QUESTION 1
A lightweight AP has been deployed in local mode in a network that consists of 10 wireless LAN controllers in a single mobility group. The AP has been configured to use primary, secondary, and tertiary Cisco WLCs. Due to a major power failure, all those Cisco WLCs are unavailable.
Which step does the AP take next?
A. The AP reboots and repeatedly attempts to join the configured primary, secondary, and tertiary Cisco WLCs in that order. The process continues until one of the configured Cisco WLCs is available.
B. The AP attempts to join a Cisco WLC configured as a master controller.
C. The AP attempts to join the Cisco WLC that has the greatest capacity available.
D. The AP state transitions to AP Fallback Mode and continues to provide limited WLAN services (that is, no new client authentications) until a Cisco WLC is available.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What must be done for Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS to communicate?
A. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WLC must be configured in the Cisco WCS.
B. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WCS must be configured in the Cisco WLC.
C. The identity certificate of the Cisco WLC must be added to the Cisco WCS.
D. The Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS must exchange identity certificates.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What three components must be the same on a controller and the RADIUS server when adding a RADIUS server to a WLC? 200-355 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Username
B. Shared Secret
C. Index Priority
D. Port Number
E. IP Address
F. Network Mask
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 4
What AnyConnect module can be used to provide a detailed scan list of the Wi-Fi environment?
A. DART
B. Telemetry
C. Web Security
D. NAM
E. Posture
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which statement best describes the ability of a wireless client to access and transmit a data frame to an AP?
A. The client listens to the media until polled by the AP using PCF to send its data.
B. The client listens to the media until a data frame is finished, at which time it transmits, unless a collision of data frames has occurred.
C. The client uses random countdown timers to start the transmission of a data frame.
D. The client listens to the media and countdown timers to start the transmission of a data frame.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
An access point is currently transmitting at 4 mW. The customer needs to increase its signal strength by 6 dB to create a larger wireless cell. What should the new transmit power be?
A. 8 mW
B. 10 mW
C. 12 mW
D. 16 mW
E. 24 mW
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A user is unable to access a lobby administration web page when using a wireless laptop; however, the user can access the page with a wired desktop computer. Which management feature needs to be enabled on the WLC to allow laptop access?
A. management via wireless
B. dynamic interface management
C. HTTP
D. HTTPS
E. TACACS
F. SSH
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A customer wants to deploy Cisco Cloud Wireless architecture with 802.11ac capabilities.
Which access points would meet the customers’ requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco 3700 Access Points
B. Cisco MR34 Access Points
C. Cisco MR18 Access Points
D. Cisco 3600 Access Points
E. Cisco MR72 Access Points
F. Cisco 1570 Access Points
G. Cisco MR26 Access Points
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
During the deployment of a wireless network for data and location services, an engineer is to fine-tune the location services. What is this type of survey called? 200-355 dumps
A. passive fingerprinting
B. passive calibrating
C. active fingerprinting
D. active calibrating
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
200-355 dumps
Select and Place:
200-355 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-355 dumps
QUESTION 11
Which two Cisco WLC management-access methods are available as the default setting? (Choose two.)
A. SSH
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
The administrator needs to create a report that shows all controllers, APs, and Cisco 3300 Series MSEs in the WLAN, including hardware and software information. Which report includes this information?
A. Device > Inventory
B. Mesh > Nodes
C. Network Summary > Executive Summary
D. Network Summary > 802.11 Summary
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two services require an RToWLAN design? (Choose two.)
A. wVoIP
B. video conferencing
C. multicast video
D. Telnet
E. SSH
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
A network engineer in the GUI of WCS version 7 wants to add an access point to a map. Where can this command be found within the drop-down menu?
A. Monitor andgt; Maps
B. Reports andgt; Maps
C. Monitor andgt; Network Summary
D. Configure andgt; Maps
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
What is the equivalent of 26 dBm in milliwatts? 200-355 dumps
A. 4 mW
B. 40 mW
C. 100 mW
D. 400 mW
E. 1000 mW
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
You are designing a wireless network in a medical facility. Which three areas are bad locations in which to install a wireless access point? (Choose three.)
A. in front of the elevators doors
B. in the hallways
C. next to the electrical room
D. inside offices
E. near medical imaging devices
F. in the lobby
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 17
An enterprise needs their iPhones to connect to the EAP-TLS network. How should the devices be configured?
A. push profile and certificate through Configuration Utility
B. configure directly through Settings application
C. email certificate to device then configure through Settings application
D. download certificate from web page then configure through Settings application
E. push profile and certificate through iTunes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which statement about ZigBee technology is true?
A. It has low power consumption.
B. It is designed only for point-to-point communications.
C. It ranges up to 250 meters.
D. It supports data rates up to 1 and 2 Mb/s.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
An AP using version 7.0 MR1 broadcasts a Layer 3 CAPWAP discovery message on the local IP subnet. Which step does the AP take next?
A. Determine if the controller responses include the primary controller.
B. Determine if the controller responses include the master controller.
C. Send a discovery request using DHCP option 43.
D. Send a discovery request using DNS.
E. Send a discovery request using locally stored information on the AP.
F. Send a discovery request using OTAP.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20
Which two features are available in the Cisco WCS Plus license over the base license? (Choose two.)
A. ad hoc rogue detection
B. high availability between two Cisco WCS stations
C. mobility service engine management
D. auto discovery and containment or notification of rogue APs
E. client location to the nearest AP
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 21
Which Cisco program for WLAN client vendors helps to ensure that their devices are interoperable with Cisco WLAN infrastructure?
A. CCX
B. CCMP
C. ASDM
D. WLSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
The network administrator wants an access point to be able to find rogue APs and to support location-based services. 200-355 dumps Which AP mode meets this requirement while having the radios up and preventing client connections?
A. monitor
B. sniffer
C. rogue-detection
D. H-REAP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
When the enterprise-based authentication method is used for WPA2, a bidirectional handshake exchange occurs between the client and the authenticator.
Which five options are results of that exchange being used on a controller-based network? (Choose five.)
A. a bidirectional exchange of a nonce used for key generation
B. binding of a Pairwise Master Key at the client and the controller
C. creation of the Pairwise Transient Key
D. distribution of the Group Transient Key
E. distribution of the Pairwise Master key for caching at the access point
F. proof that each side is alive
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,F

QUESTION 24
Which two statements about the requirements to configure inter-controller roaming are true? (Choose two.)
A. The same mobility domain names are configured across controllers.
B. The same RF group names are configured across controllers.
C. The same controller hardware version is configured across controllers.
D. The same AP manager interface is configured across controllers.
E. The same virtual interface is configured across controllers.
F. The same controller software version is configured across controllers.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 25
In a typical wireless network using WPA, WPA2 or VPN, why is it still possible for a rogue client to launch a DOS attack?
A. WPA and WPA2 are not considered strong encryption algorithms and are easily cracked.
B. 802.11 management frames are easily compromised.
C. Cisco Compatible Extensions v5 are required with WPA, WPA2, or VPN to keep rogues from launching attacks in the wireless network.
D. The message integrity check frames are never encrypted or authenticated, which allows rogues to spoof clients.
Correct Answer: B

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200-310 dumps
QUESTION 1
Why would an engineer implement variable length subnet masks?
A. To make a subnet public
B. To prevent wasting IP addresses
C. To make a subnet its own VLAN
D. To expand an existing subnet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
The red lines refer to STP blocked ports. What happens if the HSRP active moves to the right distribution, and the STP root remains on the left distribution?
A. The STP root becomes the gateway
B. The interdistribution link is used for transit
C. The HSRP standby becomes the gateway
D. The interaccess link is used for transit
E. Host traffic is unable to reach the HSRP active
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
In the traditional hierarchical LAN design,Which two statement about the distribution layer are true? (Choose two.)
A. It typically is connected directly to the internet It provides users direct access to the network
B. It uses Layer 2 switching only
C. It aggregates data from the access layer
D. Policy is implemented at this layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What three design requirements are key to design a Campus Core? 200-310 dumps
A. Low latency
B. Access control
C. Traffic filtering
D. High speed
E. Redundant links
F. QoS tagging
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 5
When designing the threat detection and mitigation portion for the enterprise data center network, which of the following would be the most appropriate solution to consider?
A. 802.1x
B. ACL in the Core layer
C. Cisco Security MARS
D. Cisco Firewall Services Module
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A network engineer has been asked to follow a top down design approach. Which layer of the OSI model is used to start the design?
A. Physical
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Application
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two design approaches provide management of Enterprise Network devices? (Choose two.)
A. In-band
B. Out-of-line
C. Out-of-band
D. In-line
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which two design decision can improve network resiliency? (you have to chose 2 answers)
A. Implement redundant link
B. Increase data plane bandwidth
C. Implement serial device connection
D. Reduce network size
E. Implement redundant topology
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified? 200-310 dumps
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What IPv4 addressing technique is used for proper address planning to reduce the number of entries in a routing table?
A. Filtering
B. Tunneling
C. Summarization
D. Translation
E. Supernetting
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
If two routing protocols have the same route and prefix, which effect do thery have on the routing table?
A. Only the route with the lowest administrative distance is added
B. Only the route with the highest administrative distance is added
C. Both routes are added
D. Neither route is added, and a loop is formed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which three are associated with the distribution layer within the campus design? (Choose three.)
A. Access layer aggregation
B. Route summarization
C. Network trust boundary
D. Next-hop redundancy
E. Layer-2 switching
F. Port security
G. Broadcast suppression
Correct Answer: ABD

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration
Exam Name: Administering and Deploying System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Exam Code: 070-243
Total Questions: 112 Q&As
070-243 dumps
QUESTION 1
You recently migrated from System Center Configuration Manager 2007 to System Center 2012 Configuration Manager.
Your network contains a client computer that runs the 64-bit version of Windows 7 and the 32- bit version of Windows 7. Some client computers have the Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) client installed.
You have an Application named App1. You have a 64-bit version of App1, a 32-bit version of App1, and a virtual version of App1.
You need to deploy the Application to all of the client computers. The solution must minimize the amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Create a new Application that has three different deployment types and create a target collection for each of the deployment types.
B. Create a new Application that has three different deployment types and configure global conditions for each of the deployment types.
C. Create a new package for each version of App1.
D. Create a new Application for each version of App1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You have an Application named App1.
You need to ensure that users in the finance department can install App1 by using the Application Catalog.
What should you do?
A. Create a required user deployment and target the deployment to all of the finance department users.
B. Create a required user deployment and target the deployment to all of the client computers in the finance department.
C. Create an available user deployment and target the deployment to all of the finance department users.
D. Create an available user deployment and target the deployment to all of the client computers in the finance department.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Your company uses System Center 2012 Configuration Manager with Microsoft Forefront Endpoint Protection integration.
You deploy Forefront Endpoint Protection to all client computers.
The company uses a management Application named App1.
You discover that Forefront Endpoint Protection blocks App1.
You need to ensure that App1 can run.
How should you configure the Default Client Malware Policy? 070-243 dumps (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Create a software restriction policy.
B. Add a process exclusion.
C. Add a file location exclusion.
D. Modify the schedule scan settings.
E. Click the Use behavior monitoring check box.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You deploy a Microsoft Office 2007 package to all client computers by using Configuration Manager.
Your company purchases Office 2010.
You need to ensure that all users can install Office 2010 from the Application Catalog.
What should you do?
A. Deploy a new package for Office 2010.
B. Deploy Office 2010 by using a Group Policy Object (GPO).
C. Update the Office 2007 source file and redeploy the package.
D. Deploy a new Application for Office 2010.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You deploy Windows 7 by using Operating System Deployment (OSD). The development task sequence contains steps to install software updates and Applications.
The amount of time required to deploy the Windows 7 image has increased significantly during the last six months.
You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to deploy the image.
What should you recommend?
A. Synchronize software updates before deploying the image.
B. Use offline servicing for the image.
C. Create a new automatic deployment rule.
D. Add an additional Install Software Updates step to the deployment task sequence.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You have Windows 7 images that are rebuilt quarterly and sported to System Center 2012 Configuration Manager.
The Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) 2012 is integrated with Configuration Manager.
You need to reduce the network security risks when the images are deployed by using Operating System Deployment (OSD).
What should you do? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. After the Apply Operating System Image task sequence step, add a step to install software updates offline.
B. Before the Apply Operating System image task sequence step, add a step to install Deployment Imaging Servicing and Management (DISM).
C. After the installation of the final Application, add an Install Software Updates task sequence step.
D. After the Apply Operating System Image task sequence step, add a Run Command line step that runs wuaudt.exe /detectnow
E. Before the Apply Operating System image task sequence step, add a step to install the Windows Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK).
Correct Answer: AC
070-243 dumps
QUESTION 7
Your company uses System Center 2012 Configuration Manager to distribute operating system images.
The standard operating system for client computers is Windows 7 Enterprise (x86).
You receive 300 new desktop computers. Each computer has a new storage controller.
When you attempt to deploy an existing image to one of the computers, you receive an error message indicating that a storage device cannot be found during the pre-boot deployment phase. You need to ensure that you can deploy Windows 7 to the new computers by using an image.
What should you do?
A. Import the storage drivers to the Drivers container and update the task sequence.
B. Create a new x64 boot image and configure the operating system image to use the x64 boot image.
C. Create a new driver package and update the task sequence.
D. Update the existing x86 boot image to include the storage drivers.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You plan to create a build and capture a task sequence to build a reference image of Windows 7.
You need to identify which applications must exist in Configuration Manager before you can create the build and capture task sequence. 070-243 dumps
Which applications should you identify? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT)
B. Configuration Manager client
C. System Preparation tool (Sysprep)
D. User State Migration Tool (USMT)
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The Client Status node in the Configuration Manager console shows a downward trend in client health.
You verify the logs on several clients.
You discover that the clients are healthy and are communicating normally to management points.
You need to identify the reasons why the Configuration Manager console displays a downward trend in client health.
Which reasons should you identify? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. In Client Status Settings Properties, the Heartbeat discovery during the following days interval is shorter than the Heartbeat Discovery interval.
B. The age set in the Delete Aged Discovery Data maintenance task is shorter than the Heartbeat Discovery interval.
C. The Delete Obsolete Client Discovery Data maintenance task is disabled.
D. The Active Directory sites that are members of boundary groups are modified.
E. Microsoft SQL Server replication to the management points stopped.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The hierarchy contains a Central Administration at Site1 and a primary site named Site.
You discover that none of the packages created on Site1 are displayed in Site2.
You need to identify whether there is a replication issue between the sites.
What should you review?
A. the Inventoryagent.log file
B. the Rcmctrl.log file
C. the Microsoft SQL Server replication diagnostic files
D. the Despool.log file
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and litwareinc.com.
You implement System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in the contoso.com forest.
You deploy the Configuration Manager client to all of the client computers in contoso.com by using a logon script.
You need to ensure that the Configuration Manager client is automatically deployed to all of the client computers in the litwareinc.com forest.
What should you do? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Configure a Client Push Installation account.
B. Enable Client Push installation.
C. Enable Active Directory System Discovery.
D. Configure an administrative user.
E. Enable Active Directory Forest Discovery.
Correct Answer: ABCE

QUESTION 12
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The environment contains a single primary site.
You need to provide users with the ability to remotely reset their mobile device to the factory settings.
What should you install?
A. Application Catalog web service point and Application Catalog website point
B. Out of band service point and Application Catalog web service point
C. Device management point and System Health Validator point
D. System Health Validator point and Application Catalog website point
Correct Answer: A

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