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300-160 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two statements about Fibre Channel over IP are true? (Choose two.)
A. FCIP links consist of a maximum of one TCP connection between two FCIP link endpoints.
B. Each FCIP link carries encapsulated FCoE frames.
C. The FCIP link is established between two peers, and the VE Port initialization behavior is identical to a normal E Port.
D. The FCIP profile contains information about the local IP address and TCP parameters.
E. The local IP address of the FCIP profile is the IP address of the management interface of the Cisco MDS switch.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
Which option describes the default predictor on ACE to select the best server to fulfill a client request?
A. the hash cookie, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on a cookie name
B. least bandwidth, which selects the server that processed the least amount of network traffic
C. round robin, which selects the next server in the list of real servers
D. the hash DNS, which selects the server using a hash value that is based on FQDN
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
The Cisco Nexus 1000v Series switches can configure traditional SPAN sessions. Which three statements about the local SPAN source ports are true? (Choose three.)
A. It can be configured to monitor the direction of the traffic.
B. It must be in the same VSAN.
C. It can be port type Ethernet, virtual Ethernet, or port channel.
D. It must be in the same VLAN.
E. It cannot be on a different host VEM as the destination port.
F. It cannot be a port profile.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 4
Which statements are true regarding the Cisco UCS fabric failover feature? 300-160 dumps (Choose three.)
A. FabricSync is used to synchronize MAC addresses to an adjacent fabric interconnect after a server interface failover.
B. Gratuitous ARPs are sent on fabric interconnect uplinks after a server interface failover.
C. Fabric failover can be used on vNICs and vHBAs.
D. Fabric failover is configured as part of the service profile.
E. Fabric interconnects in end-host mode use fabric failover instead of spanning tree to provide redundancy on uplink ports.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 5
What is the main function of the device-alias distribute command?
A. This command distributes the device alias configuration on the existing switch to all the other switches in the Cisco Fabric Services region.
B. This command enables distribution and will send the configuration after a commit is executed.
C. This command changes the distribution mode for device aliases.
D. There is no such command.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You plan to add a new VLAN to your updating service profile template. Assuming that the default maintenance policy is configured, which statement about applying this change is true?
A. The change will be applied immediately once the blade is rebooted.
B. The change will be deferred until the user acknowledges.
C. The change will be applied immediately with no disruption to any bound service profiles.
D. The change will generate an impact summary message.
E. The change will require all bound service profiles to be unbound.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What is the default FSPF cost of a port channel that consists of four 2-Gb/s links, with one link down because of an error?
A. 500
B. 166
C. 250
D. 125
E. 100
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
KAL-AP on the Cisco ACE allows communication with Cisco ACE Global Site Selector, to report virtual IP and real server availability. Which statement is true about KAL-AP?
A. It is a Cisco propriety keepalive.
B. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP entries.
C. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP keepalives.
D. It is used for both Cisco and non-cisco load balancers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which option describes how you would guarantee 30 percent of available bandwidth on interface 1/4?
A. Issue the bandwidth percent 30 command after the interface ethernet1/4 command.
B. Issue the bandwidth percent 30 command after the class best-effort-drop-class command.
C. Issue the bandwidth percentage 30 command after the policy-map policy1-egress command.
D. Issue the bandwidth percentage 30 command after the class best-effort-drop-class command.
E. Bandwidth guarantees are not permitted on output policies.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
ACE can check the health of servers and server farms by configuring health probes (sometimes referred to as keepalives). There are several types of probes.
Which three options are valid ACE probes? (Choose three.)
A. TCP
B. ICMP
C. HTTP
D. IPsec
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 11
Which statement about NPV on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches is true? 300-160 dumps
A. By default, Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches operate in NPV mode. In this mode, the switch providesstandard Fibre Channel switching.
B. In NPV mode, each switch that joins a SAN is assigned a domain ID. Each SAN (or VSAN) supports amaximum of 239 domain IDs, so the SAN has a limit of 239 switches.
C. In NPV mode, the edge switch relays all traffic from server-side sports to the core switch. The core switchprovides TE Port functionality to the downstream NPV switch.
D. In NPV mode, the edge switch appears as a Fibre Channel host to the core switch and as a regular FibreChannel switch to its connected devices.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
The OTV overlay interface is a logical multiaccess and multicast-capable interface that must be explicitly defined by the user, and is the location where the entire OTV configuration is applied. Which two statements about the OTV overlay interface are true? (Choose two.)
A. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame that is destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the overlay interface.
B. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the join interface toward the routed domain.
C. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame that is destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the join interface.
D. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the overlay interface toward the routed domain.
E. The OTV edge device performs the static OTV encapsulation on the Layer 3 packet and sends it to the join interface toward the switching domain.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series implementation has two main components. Which two components together make up the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch? (Choose two.)
A. virtual supervisor module
B. virtual Ethernet module
C. virtual machine NICs
D. virtual machine kernel NICs
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Which three statements about the configuration of vPC+ are true? (Choose three.)
A. The FabricPath switch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.
B. The virtual switch ID of vPC+ must be configured under the FabricPath domain.
C. On the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch, F1 interfaces must be used as the vPC+ peer links.
D. The vPC+ peer link must be configured as a Cisco FabricPath core port.
E. The FabricPath subswitch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.
F. There has to be atleast 4 virtual switches in the FabricPath domain.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 15
What does the mac packet-classify command do when applied to an interface configuration?
A. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only IP packets that enter the interface.
B. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only non-IP packets that enter the interface.
C. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to all packets that enter the interface.
D. It enables MAC ACLs to be used for QoS settings.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Cisco UCS provides integration interfaces and protocols to support heterogeneous data center environments and supports standard monitoring and eventnotification systems, providing data to standard enterprise-management tools. 300-160 dumps
Which two of these lists the primary Cisco UCS interfaces and industry standard-based read-only interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. UCS Manager XML API and UCS CLI
B. SNMP, SMASH CLP, and CIM-XML
C. UCS Manager, DCOS, and Local-mgmt
D. SoL and NX-OS
E. debug-plugin and UCS Manager GUI
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
When testing ICMP access to a functional load-balancing ACE VIP, it fails. What is the reason of this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The interface is shut down
B. An access list is denying ICMP
C. Routing is not configured properly
D. vip icmp-reply is inactive
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
On a Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS), which two statements regarding Ethanalyzer are true? (Choose two.)
A. Interface inbound-low handles Rx and Tx of low-priority control packet
B. Interface inbound-lo handles Rx and Tx of high-priority control packet
C. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth3
D. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth4
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
Which two statements about enhanced zoning are true? (Choose two.)
A. Enhanced zoning is a mode that shows much more detail for the SAN choices when it is viewed in Fabric Manager.
B. Enhanced zoning cannot be enabled per VSAN. It is a chassis-wide setting.
C. Enhanced zoning sets the default zone to the same state in all switches.
D. Enhanced zoning cannot be enabled in an FCoE environment.
E. Enhanced zoning sends ACA to lock the fabric when the administrator starts a zone change.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 20
In a FabricPath topology, each device is identified by a switch ID, and all Layer 2 forwarding tables are built based on the reachability of the switch ID. Which protocol is used to assign the switch ID?
A. No protocol is used. The switch ID is always assigned manually.
B. The Dynamic Resource Allocation Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.
C. The Switch ID Assignment Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.
D. The switch ID is assigned based on the system ID of the device.
Correct Answer: B

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